10 free Paramedic practice questions: Advanced Airway Management and Rapid Sequence Intubation Concepts
These are real questions from the same bank the app draws from. Each one is written to the NREMT Paramedic content specifications and kept inside the Paramedic scope of practice. Pick an answer and you get the full rationale, including why the other three options are wrong.
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Question 1 of 10
A 61-year-old patient in septic shock has a decreasing level of consciousness and needs the airway secured. The vital signs are BP 78/44, P 132, R 30, and SpO₂ 88% on high-flow oxygen. What should be done before the induction agent is given?
Show the answer and rationale
Correct answer · Give a fluid bolus, have a vasopressor ready, and reduce the induction dose
Induction agents drop vascular tone and positive pressure ventilation cuts venous return, so a patient whose pressure is already this low can arrest on the drug rather than on the disease. The fix is to resuscitate first. Load the tank with fluid, have a vasopressor drawn up and running if needed, and cut the induction dose, because a shocked patient needs less of it than the label suggests.
Why the others are wrong
Withhold the paralytic and attempt an awake look with topical anesthesia alone: An awake look does not fix the hemodynamics, and it gives up the conditions that make a first-pass success likely in a patient who cannot tolerate a second attempt.
Increase the oxygen flow and defer the airway until the emergency department: The level of consciousness is falling and the saturation is 88% on high-flow oxygen. Waiting hands over an unprotected airway and a patient who is still deteriorating.
Give the full induction dose so the airway is secured before the pressure falls: A full dose in a patient with no reserve is the thing most likely to stop this heart. Speed does not protect a pressure of 78 systolic.
Question 2 of 10
A 58-year-old patient has a rapidly expanding neck hematoma after a fall, with worsening stridor and decreasing responsiveness. Two laryngoscopy attempts fail to reveal any glottic structures. A supraglottic airway is inserted, but there is no chest rise and no waveform on capnography. Positive pressure ventilations with a BVM and an oropharyngeal airway also produce no chest rise, and the SpO₂ has fallen from 88% to 71%. What should the paramedic do next?
Show the answer and rationale
Correct answer · Perform a surgical cricothyrotomy
This patient meets the definition of a failed airway in its most urgent form: the paramedic can neither intubate nor oxygenate. Two intubation attempts have failed, the rescue supraglottic airway does not ventilate, and BVM ventilation with an adjunct does not ventilate either, while the SpO₂ continues to fall. Every failed-airway algorithm terminates in a surgical airway at that point, and an expanding neck hematoma is precisely the distorted-anatomy problem that repeat laryngoscopy will not solve. Recognizing the endpoint early matters more than technique, because the decision is time-critical and further attempts consume the patient's remaining oxygen reserve.
Why the others are wrong
Reposition the supraglottic airway: Repositioning the supraglottic airway is worth trying only if it hasn't already failed to ventilate. Here it's already produced no chest rise and no waveform, meaning it isn't working at all.
Attempt a third laryngoscopy: A third laryngoscopy attempt burns more of this patient's rapidly falling oxygen reserve on a technique that's already failed twice against distorted anatomy that repeat attempts won't fix.
Increase the ventilation rate with the BVM: Increasing the BVM ventilation rate doesn't help when the fundamental problem is that ventilations aren't producing any chest rise at all. More attempts at a technique that isn't working doesn't make it work.
Question 3 of 10
A 27-year-old patient was stung by a wasp 10 minutes ago and now has raised welts across the trunk, swelling of the lips and tongue, and audible stridor. The patient can speak only in single words. The vital signs are BP 82/50, P 128, and R 28, with SpO₂ 90% on high-concentration oxygen. What is the most appropriate next action?
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Correct answer · Administer epinephrine intramuscularly
Split it into two branches: an allergic reaction stays confined to the skin and mild symptoms, while anaphylaxis has crossed into a second body system. This one has crossed into two: stridor and lip and tongue swelling are the airway, and a blood pressure of 82/50 with a pulse of 128 is the circulation. Epinephrine is the only drug that treats both arms at once: alpha-1 stimulation constricts the dilated, leaking vasculature, which raises the pressure and shrinks the mucosal edema squeezing the airway shut, while beta-2 stimulation relaxes bronchial smooth muscle and dampens further mediator release from mast cells. The intramuscular route into the lateral thigh is used because it absorbs reliably and quickly without the dysrhythmia risk of an intravenous bolus in a patient who still has a pulse. Everything else on this list is adjunctive, and adjuncts do not work fast enough to matter while a tongue is closing an airway.
Why the others are wrong
Administer diphenhydramine intravenously: An H1 antihistamine is genuinely indicated in anaphylaxis and will be given. It blocks histamine at the receptor and blunts the next round of mediator effect. It does nothing about the histamine already bound and already producing the stridor and the 82/50 in front of you, and its onset is far longer than the minutes this airway has. Both drugs are indicated; this one comes after, and the item is asking what comes first.
Administer nebulized albuterol: Albuterol is the right answer for lower-airway bronchospasm, and if this patient were wheezing after epinephrine it would be a reasonable adjunct. The question describes stridor, which is a high-pitched sound generated at and above the cords by upper-airway swelling, and a nebulized beta-2 agonist does not shrink laryngeal and tongue edema. It also does nothing for the hypotension, which is the other half of what is killing this patient.
Perform rapid sequence intubation: Rapid sequence intubation is what you prepare for when anaphylactic airway swelling does not respond to epinephrine, and it may still be needed. Paralyzing a patient whose glottis is already narrowed by edema turns a partially obstructed airway into a can't-intubate, can't-ventilate emergency, and it does nothing for the shock. Give the drug that can reverse the swelling first, and keep the airway plan ready in case it does not.
Question 4 of 10
A paramedic responds for a 71-year-old patient with a long-standing tracheostomy who has increasing difficulty breathing. The patient is restless, and the skin is pale. Ventilation through the tracheostomy tube with a BVM device meets high resistance and produces no chest rise. A suction catheter passes only a short distance into the tube before meeting an obstruction, and suctioning does not improve ventilation. What should the paramedic do next?
Show the answer and rationale
Correct answer · Remove the inner cannula and reattempt ventilation
Take the findings one at a time. High resistance with no chest rise says the tube is obstructed rather than displaced, and a suction catheter that passes only a short distance tells you where the obstruction is: inside the tube itself, near the proximal end, not down in the trachea or a bronchus. In a long-standing tracheostomy the overwhelmingly common cause is dried secretions crusted onto the inner cannula, which is the removable liner that exists specifically so it can be taken out and cleaned. Pulling it takes seconds, needs no equipment, is completely reversible, and leaves the outer cannula in place holding the stoma tract open, so it is the highest-yield step for the least destabilization. The umbrella rule: anything that will not pass a catheter and will not accept ventilation gets the inner cannula out before anything more aggressive is attempted.
Why the others are wrong
Instill sterile saline and suction the tube again: Repeating suction is the right move when the catheter passes and you are simply clearing more secretions than one pass removed. Here the catheter already met a firm obstruction and suctioning already failed to improve ventilation, so this repeats an intervention that has failed while a restless, pale patient goes without ventilation. Saline instillation is also not supported as a way to break up a plug and can drive debris further in. The key removes the plug bodily instead of trying to negotiate with it.
Ventilate through the mouth and nose with a mask: Ventilating from above is a legitimate rescue for a tracheostomy patient, but only for one with a patent upper airway: a connection between the pharynx and trachea that a total laryngectomy patient does not have, and it requires occluding the stoma or the air simply escapes. It is the workaround for a tube you cannot fix. This tube is fixable in seconds, so bypassing it before trying the single step most likely to restore it adds an assumption and a delay for no gain.
Remove the entire tracheostomy tube from the stoma: Removing the whole tube is the correct escalation once the inner cannula is out and the obstruction persists, or when the tube is clearly displaced into a false passage. It is also the destructive option: pulling the outer cannula risks losing the stoma tract, and if the tract closes you own an airway you may not be able to re-enter. The principle is to take the least destructive step likely to work first: inner cannula out, and only then the whole tube.
Question 5 of 10
A paramedic is unable to intubate a patient who was eating a large meal immediately before collapsing and who has already vomited once. BVM ventilation is producing adequate chest rise, and a supraglottic airway will be placed as a rescue device. Which feature of the device is most important in this patient?
Show the answer and rationale
Correct answer · A channel that allows gastric drainage
Start with what a supraglottic airway is and is not. It seats above the cords and seals the hypopharynx, so it directs gas toward the trachea, but it never seals the trachea itself and therefore never fully protects against aspiration. Now read the patient: a large meal immediately before collapse, one episode of vomiting already, and BVM ventilation that has been pushing air into the stomach the whole time. That is a full, pressurized stomach sitting underneath an airway that cannot be fully protected. Second-generation devices answer exactly that with a separate channel opening into the esophagus, so a gastric tube can be passed to vent the trapped air and drain stomach contents away from the airway. That channel is what lowers the aspiration risk this question is built around, and decompressing the stomach also drops the pressure pushing up on the diaphragm, which improves the ventilation you can deliver.
Why the others are wrong
An inflatable cuff that seals the hypopharynx: The hypopharyngeal seal is what makes any supraglottic airway work at all: without it your ventilation pressure leaks out around the device instead of going into the lungs, so this is a real and necessary feature and the strongest distractor here. Two problems: essentially every supraglottic airway in use has some form of seal, so it does not distinguish one device from another, and a seal above the esophagus stops gas escaping upward rather than draining what is already in the stomach. It addresses ventilation quality, not this patient's specific danger.
A color-coded sizing scale based on weight: Correct sizing genuinely matters, since an undersized device leaks and an oversized one seats poorly, so a weight-based scale is a useful design feature and part of using the device well. Sizing is a general requirement for any patient, not a feature aimed at this one's problem. The question asks what matters most in a patient with a full stomach who has already vomited, and sizing is neutral to that.
A reinforced tube that resists kinking: Kink resistance is a genuine advantage in a transported patient whose head may be turned, because an occluded tube ventilates nothing. It protects against a mechanical problem that might happen. Aspiration in this patient is a problem that is already actively developing: the vomiting has already started, so the feature that addresses the present threat outranks the one that addresses a possible future threat.
Question 6 of 10
A 70-year-old patient with a history of a total laryngectomy is found unresponsive and apneic with an opening in the anterior neck. A first responder is ventilating with a BVM device over the mouth and nose, and the chest does not rise. The airway has been repositioned and the mouth is clear of fluid and debris. What is the most appropriate next action?
Show the answer and rationale
Correct answer · Ventilate through the neck opening
The word does the work here. A total laryngectomy is removal of the larynx, and the surgeon brings the cut end of the trachea out to the skin as a permanent stoma, so after that operation there is no connection at all between the mouth and nose and the lungs. That is why the chest is not rising: a breath delivered to the face cannot reach the chest no matter how good the mask seal or the technique, and no further work on the face-side airway can change that. Every breath has to go through the stoma, using an infant or pediatric mask sealed over the opening, or an endotracheal tube passed a short distance into the stoma if ventilation will be prolonged. Contrast this with a tracheostomy, where the upper airway remains connected and ventilation from above can still work; that is the distinction the item is testing.
Why the others are wrong
Perform a jaw-thrust maneuver and reattempt: A jaw thrust is the correct maneuver for the most common cause of a chest that will not rise, which is the tongue falling back and occluding the pharynx in an unresponsive patient, and it is the preferred version when a spinal injury is suspected. It works by opening a pathway between the mouth and the trachea. This patient has no such pathway, because it was surgically removed, so opening the pharynx improves nothing while the key delivers air to the only opening that reaches the lungs.
Insert an oropharyngeal airway and reattempt: An oropharyngeal airway solves the same problem the jaw thrust does, mechanically holding the tongue off the posterior pharynx, and it is a reasonable next adjunct in an ordinary failed-ventilation sequence. It rests on the same fatal assumption: that maintaining a route from the mouth leads somewhere. The question has also already told you the airway was repositioned and the mouth is clear, which is the item's way of eliminating every explanation on the face side of the problem.
Suction the mouth and reattempt: Suctioning is right when the chest is not rising because something is physically in the way, such as blood, vomit, or secretions, and it should always be considered early. The question states that the mouth is clear of fluid and debris, so there is nothing to suction and no obstruction to clear. Repeating a face-side intervention is the specific error this item is built to catch, and the key changes where the air is delivered, which is the only change that alters the outcome.
Question 7 of 10
During laryngoscopy on a 49-year-old patient undergoing rapid sequence intubation, an assistant is applying firm pressure to the cricoid cartilage. The paramedic can see only the posterior cartilages at the laryngeal inlet and cannot pass the tube. The SpO₂ is 97% and there is no vomiting. What is the most appropriate next action?
Show the answer and rationale
Correct answer · Have the assistant release the pressure
Cricoid pressure was taught for decades on the theory that pressing the cricoid ring backward occludes the esophagus and prevents regurgitation. It has never been shown to do that reliably, and it is no longer recommended as a routine part of rapid sequence intubation. What it does do reliably is distort the laryngeal inlet and worsen the view, and seeing only the posterior cartilages is exactly the picture firm cricoid pressure produces. The rule is simple: when cricoid pressure is being applied and the view is poor, releasing or adjusting it is the first correction, and it frequently converts a partial view into a full one within seconds. The question also hands you permission to fix it in place: the saturation is 97% and there is no vomiting, so there is time to make the adjustment during this attempt rather than abandoning it.
Why the others are wrong
Have the assistant increase the pressure: More pressure is what you would ask for if the problem were an anteriorly positioned larynx, and it is very easy to confuse cricoid pressure with external laryngeal manipulation, where a second set of hands genuinely does improve the view. The difference is direction and purpose: laryngeal manipulation moves the thyroid cartilage to optimize what you see, while cricoid pressure pushes the airway backward to try to occlude the esophagus behind it. Increasing the force that is already flattening the inlet drives the view further in the wrong direction.
Withdraw and reattempt with a smaller blade: Changing equipment is a legitimate response to a failed attempt, and blade type and size do matter to the view. This treats the attempt as failed when it has not failed yet: the saturation is 97% and the operator is still looking, and it costs the whole attempt plus the time to swap gear. One variable in this picture is obviously wrong and is attached to the assistant's hand; fix the free variable inside the attempt before restarting the attempt.
Abandon the attempt and place a supraglottic airway: Abandoning laryngoscopy for a rescue device is correct when the patient is desaturating, the attempt has run long, or repeated attempts have failed. None of that is true here: the saturation is 97%, this is one ongoing attempt, and there is an obvious correctable cause of the poor view. Escalating past a fix that takes one sentence to communicate gives up a definitive airway for no reason.
Question 8 of 10
A 62-year-old patient with a fixed, flexed neck from long-standing rheumatoid arthritis received etomidate and rocuronium at 1.2 mg/kg for rapid sequence intubation. The first laryngoscopy attempt failed. BVM ventilation with an oropharyngeal airway is maintaining an SpO₂ of 97%, and a crew member suggests allowing the patient to wake up and breathe spontaneously instead of making a second attempt. Which factor makes that plan unavailable?
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Correct answer · Rocuronium will last 45 to 60 minutes
Paralytics split into two families by duration, and that split decides whether waking the patient up is even on the table. Succinylcholine is depolarizing and short, wearing off in roughly eight to ten minutes, so a crew that used it can genuinely fall back on returning the patient to spontaneous breathing. Rocuronium is non-depolarizing, and at an intubating dose of 1.2 mg/kg it produces complete paralysis for roughly forty-five to sixty minutes, far longer than any patient will tolerate without someone breathing for them. Choosing that agent commits the crew to owning the airway for the entire duration, so every backup plan has to be a rescue airway: continued BVM ventilation, a supraglottic device, or a surgical airway. Recognizing that commitment before the drug is pushed is part of choosing it, especially in a patient whose fixed flexed neck made the first attempt fail.
Why the others are wrong
Etomidate will suppress breathing for an hour: Etomidate is why this patient is unaware, and sedation does contribute to apnea, so suspecting the induction agent is not unreasonable. The duration is wrong by a wide margin: a single induction dose of etomidate produces only a few minutes of unconsciousness, nowhere near an hour. Even if the sedation had fully worn off, the paralysis would still prevent a breath, so the key names the drug whose duration actually blocks the plan.
Rocuronium does not affect the diaphragm: This statement gets the pharmacology backwards. Non-depolarizing blockade takes the diaphragm along with every other skeletal muscle; the diaphragm is simply among the more resistant muscles and among the first to recover, which is likely where the idea comes from. If rocuronium truly spared the diaphragm the crew member's plan would work, and it is the falsity of this statement that makes the plan unavailable.
BVM ventilation prevents spontaneous effort: BVM ventilation supports a patient rather than suppressing respiratory drive. Overventilating can blunt drive by dropping carbon dioxide in a patient who is not paralyzed, but the BVM is not why this patient is apneic, and right now it is the only reason the SpO2 is sitting at 97%. The obstacle is pharmacologic, not the device holding the saturation up, so the key points at the paralytic instead of the bag.
Question 9 of 10
A paramedic is transporting an intubated patient by helicopter. Shortly after the aircraft climbs from 500 feet to 6,000 feet, the endotracheal tube cuff pressure measured with a manometer has risen from 25 to 48 cmH2O. Breath sounds remain equal, the tube depth at the teeth is unchanged, the SpO₂ is 98%, and the EtCO₂ is 38 mmHg with a rectangular waveform. What should the paramedic do?
Show the answer and rationale
Correct answer · Withdraw air until the cuff pressure returns to 25 cmH2O
Gas expands as the pressure around it falls, so climbing from 500 to 6,000 feet expands the air sealed inside the endotracheal tube cuff, and the pressure that cuff exerts on the tracheal wall rises with it: 25 to 48 cmH2O, exactly as the manometer shows. The rest of the question exists to tell you nothing else is wrong: breath sounds equal, depth at the teeth unchanged, saturation 98%, and a rectangular waveform with a normal EtCO2. This is a pure cuff-pressure problem with a pure cuff-pressure fix. It matters because pressures above roughly 30 cmH2O exceed the perfusion pressure of the tracheal mucosal capillaries, and sustained compression at that level produces ischemic injury that can later scar and narrow the trachea. Withdraw air with the manometer attached until the pressure is back in range, then recheck during descent, because the same gas contracts on the way down and the cuff may then leak.
Why the others are wrong
Advance the tube 1 cm to reseat the cuff: Advancing the tube is the correction for a tube that has migrated outward: a cuff sitting at or above the cords, an audible leak, a changed depth marking at the teeth. The question closes that door explicitly: the depth at the teeth is unchanged and breath sounds are still equal. Advancing without an indication risks a mainstem intubation, and it would not lower the cuff pressure anyway, because the pressure came from expanding gas rather than from position.
Leave the cuff alone and recheck after landing: Watchful waiting is defensible for a borderline pressure or one that is trending down, and it is true this patient is currently well oxygenated and well ventilated. The problem is that mucosal ischemia is time-dependent and silent. Nothing on the monitor will change while the injury develops, and the aircraft stays at altitude. You have a manometer in your hand and a two-second correction, so there is no reason to accept a known injurious pressure for the length of the transport.
Deflate the cuff completely until the aircraft descends: Full deflation is done deliberately in a few narrow situations, such as troubleshooting the cuff or preparing to extubate. Doing it here trades a slow problem for a fast one: with no seal, delivered volume leaks past the tube and your ventilation becomes unreliable, and gastric contents and oral secretions have a direct path into the trachea. The goal is to normalize the pressure, not to eliminate the seal, and the key adjusts the same variable by the right amount.
Question 10 of 10
A paramedic places a bougie beneath the epiglottis of a 61-year-old patient and feels the clicks of the tracheal rings along its length as it is advanced. The endotracheal tube is then advanced over the bougie but stops against firm resistance a few centimeters short of its intended depth and will not pass. The laryngoscope is still in place and the view is unchanged. The SpO₂ is 96%. What should the paramedic do next?
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Correct answer · Withdraw the tube slightly and rotate it counterclockwise
The tracheal clicks felt during advancement already confirm the bougie is in the airway, so the obstruction is not a placement failure. When a tube hangs up while being railroaded over a correctly placed bougie, the cause is almost always the leading edge of the tube's bevel catching on the right arytenoid cartilage or the aryepiglottic fold, because the bevel faces left as the tube is normally held. Backing the tube off about a centimeter and rotating it 90 degrees counterclockwise turns the bevel away from that structure and lets the tip slip between the cords. Keeping the laryngoscope in place throughout matters, because it maintains the tissue displacement that created the passage in the first place.
Why the others are wrong
Withdraw the bougie a few centimeters and readvance it: Moving the bougie moves the guide rather than the part that is stuck. The tube bevel is still oriented the same way when it reaches the same structure, and withdrawing the bougie risks losing the tracheal access that is already established.
Push the tube firmly past the resistance: Force does not change the geometry that is causing the hang-up. The bevel stays hooked on the same cartilage and the added pressure is what dislocates an arytenoid or tears laryngeal mucosa, producing bleeding that makes the remaining attempts harder.
Remove the bougie and reattempt with a stylet: The bougie has already done the difficult part and its position in the trachea is confirmed by the clicks. Discarding it restarts the intubation from the beginning, and a stylet does nothing about a bevel caught on the arytenoid.
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