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Free NREMT practice questionsFree Paramedic practice questions · Airway, Respiration & Ventilation

10 free Paramedic practice questions: Ventilator Management and Advanced Oxygenation

These are real questions from the same bank the app draws from. Each one is written to the NREMT Paramedic content specifications and kept inside the Paramedic scope of practice. Pick an answer and you get the full rationale, including why the other three options are wrong.

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Question 1 of 10

A 41-year-old patient who is 5 feet 6 inches tall and weighs 140 kilograms has been intubated and is being placed on a transport ventilator. Which weight should the initial tidal volume be calculated from?

Show the answer and rationale

Correct answer · The ideal body weight predicted from height and sex

Lungs do not grow when a person gains weight. A 5 foot 6 inch chest holds the same amount of lung whether the patient weighs 60 kilograms or 140. That is why the tidal volume is figured from ideal body weight, predicted from height and sex, and never from the number on the scale. Using the actual weight in a large patient can hand you a volume close to double what those lungs will take, which is how you tear them.

Why the others are wrong

The average of the measured weight and the predicted weight for this height: Averaging still drags the volume upward with body fat that has no lung attached to it.

The adjusted weight used for medication dosing in a large patient: Adjusted weight belongs to drug dosing, where the medication distributes into tissue. Tidal volume answers to lung size instead.

The measured weight of 140 kilograms, which reflects the current oxygen demand: Oxygen demand is met by the fraction of inspired oxygen and PEEP, not by stretching the lungs past their size.

Question 2 of 10

A 10-year-old child is sedated for a painful procedure and is receiving high-flow oxygen by mask. The SpO₂ reads 100%, the respirations are shallow and slow, and the child is difficult to rouse. Which monitoring best detects the developing problem?

Show the answer and rationale

Correct answer · Continuous waveform capnography applied for the duration of the sedation

A saturation of 100% on high-flow oxygen tells you the blood is loaded with oxygen. It tells you nothing about whether the carbon dioxide is leaving. A sedated patient breathing shallowly can hold that 100% while the carbon dioxide climbs to a dangerous level, and the oximeter will keep showing a reassuring number right up until the patient stops. Capnography watches every breath and shows the carbon dioxide rising long before the saturation moves, which is why it belongs on any sedated patient, not just an intubated one.

Why the others are wrong

Serial blood pressure measurement at three-minute intervals during sedation: Blood pressure changes late in hypoventilation, well after the carbon dioxide has climbed and often after the patient has stopped breathing.

Repeat pulse oximetry readings every two minutes throughout the procedure: Repeating the same measurement more often does not make it report carbon dioxide. The saturation will read 100% either way.

Continuous cardiac monitoring with attention to the development of bradycardia: Bradycardia from carbon dioxide retention is a late sign. By the time the rate falls, the chance to intervene early has passed.

Question 3 of 10

During transport, an intubated 55-year-old patient with a strong carotid pulse has an abrupt loss of the capnography waveform to zero. One minute earlier the waveform was rectangular with an EtCO₂ of 36 mmHg. What should the paramedic do next?

Show the answer and rationale

Correct answer · Assess the tube for dislodgement or obstruction

Capnography measures carbon dioxide arriving at the sensor, and that requires two things at once: blood delivering carbon dioxide to the lungs, and gas moving it out through the tube. This patient has a strong carotid pulse, so the circulation half is intact, which leaves the gas pathway. The clinching feature is the shape of the change: an abrupt drop from a normal rectangular waveform at 36 straight to zero means gas stopped moving all at once, which is dislodgement, complete obstruction, or a disconnection in the circuit. Contrast that with a gradual decline, which reflects falling pulmonary blood flow such as worsening shock, and with a sudden drop to a low but non-zero value, which suggests a leak around the cuff. Because a tube that has come out of the trachea kills within minutes, you verify the airway before you blame the equipment.

Why the others are wrong

Begin chest compressions immediately: A sudden loss of the waveform to zero is a genuine cardiac arrest sign, and in a patient without a confirmed pulse it would demand an immediate pulse check. The question has already done that check for you and reports a strong carotid pulse. Compressing a perfusing patient is not harmless, and more importantly it treats a circulation problem this patient does not have while a possibly displaced tube goes unaddressed.

Replace the sensor and continue transport: Equipment failure is a real cause of a flat capnography trace: a disconnected sampling line, a sensor fouled by moisture or secretions, a cable that has worked loose, so this will sometimes turn out to be the answer. It is the most dangerous first assumption, though, because if you are wrong the patient is being ventilated into the esophagus or not at all while you swap parts. Check the patient and the tube first; a device that is genuinely broken will still be broken thirty seconds later.

Increase the ventilation rate and reassess: Adjusting the rate is how you respond to a value trending the wrong way in a patient who is being ventilated: a rising EtCO2 from hypoventilation, for example. It assumes gas is still moving through the tube, and a reading of zero tells you it is not. Ventilating faster through a tube that is displaced, blocked, or disconnected delivers nothing to the lungs and spends the minutes you need to find the actual problem.

Question 4 of 10

A paramedic increases the PEEP setting on a transport ventilator from 5 to 15 for a hypoxemic intubated 60-year-old patient. Within 2 minutes the vital signs change to BP 78/48 and P 124, from BP 112/70 and P 88. Breath sounds remain equal bilaterally and the trachea is midline. What is most likely causing the change in the vital signs?

Show the answer and rationale

Correct answer · Decreased venous return from increased intrathoracic pressure

Positive end-expiratory pressure holds pressure in the chest throughout the respiratory cycle, so raising it raises the mean intrathoracic pressure. The great veins entering the chest are thin-walled and collapse under that pressure, so the volume returning to the right side of the heart falls, stroke volume falls with it, and the blood pressure drops while the heart rate rises to compensate. The timing is the clincher here: the change appeared within two minutes of a ventilator setting change, with equal breath sounds and a midline trachea ruling out the other pressure-driven cause. This is the principal hemodynamic cost of the setting, it is more pronounced when the patient is already volume-depleted, and the response is to lower the setting back toward the previous value and address the volume status.

Why the others are wrong

Decreased systemic vascular resistance from alveolar recruitment: A drop in systemic vascular resistance is the mechanism behind every form of distributive shock, sepsis, anaphylaxis, and neurogenic shock, and you would expect warm skin and a wide pulse pressure to go with it. Recruiting alveoli does not dilate the systemic vascular bed, and if anything relieving hypoxemia and hypercarbia lowers pulmonary vascular tone rather than systemic tone. The key wins on timing and mechanism together: a pressure that falls within two minutes of turning a dial is a mechanical consequence of that dial, not a new vasodilatory disease.

Increased venous return from decreased intrathoracic pressure: a real and correct piece of physiology, it just describes a spontaneous breath, where the chest generates negative pressure and actively pulls blood back to the right heart. Positive end-expiratory pressure does the opposite by definition, holding pressure positive even at the end of exhalation. It also fails on direction: more venous return would raise the blood pressure, and this patient's fell.

Increased left ventricular afterload from alveolar recruitment: Increased left ventricular afterload is the right explanation for hypotension caused by a heart ejecting against a high resistance, as in a hypertensive crisis or severe aortic stenosis, and it is a left-sided problem. Positive intrathoracic pressure runs the other way, lowering the wall stress the left ventricle ejects against, which is one of the reasons CPAP helps in acute pulmonary edema. The key names the correct chamber and direction: chest pressure hurts the filling side first, because the great veins that fill the right heart are upstream and thin-walled.

Question 5 of 10

An intubated 59-year-old patient is being ventilated by a transport ventilator at a rate of 14 with a tidal volume of 450 mL. Endotracheal tube placement has been reconfirmed, breath sounds are equal bilaterally, and the chest rises with each delivered breath. The EtCO₂ is 36 mmHg with a rectangular waveform, and the SpO₂ is 84% on 100% oxygen. What ventilator change is most appropriate?

Show the answer and rationale

Correct answer · Increase the PEEP

Oxygenation and ventilation are separate problems with separate controls, and this question separates them deliberately. A normal end-tidal carbon dioxide of 36 with a rectangular waveform proves carbon dioxide is being cleared adequately, so minute ventilation is not the deficiency. Hypoxemia that persists on 100% oxygen means blood is passing through lung units that are perfused but not aerated, which is shunt, and shunt is not corrected by raising the oxygen concentration further because the blood never meets the gas. Positive end-expiratory pressure is the setting that addresses it, because holding pressure in the airway at end expiration recruits collapsed alveoli and keeps them open so that the blood flowing past them can pick up oxygen.

Why the others are wrong

Increase the ventilation rate: A faster rate is the correct move when the end-tidal carbon dioxide is high in a patient with clear lungs, which is a ventilation problem. This patient's carbon dioxide is 36 with a rectangular waveform, which is normal, so raising the rate would drive it below normal and shorten expiratory time for no benefit. Both settings change something about the breath, but the key moves the oxygenation control and this one moves the carbon dioxide control, and only the oxygenation number is abnormal.

Increase the tidal volume: A larger tidal volume is right when the chest rise is shallow, the volume is set below the lung-protective range, or the patient is retaining carbon dioxide. The chest rises with each delivered breath here and the carbon dioxide is already normal, so the extra volume buys nothing and adds tidal stretch to alveoli that are already open. The key recruits the alveoli that are closed without stretching the ones that are not, which is the whole reason end-expiratory pressure rather than volume is the oxygenation lever.

Decrease the inspiratory time: Shortening the inspiratory time is a real correction when air trapping is the problem, because a shorter inspiratory time leaves more of the cycle for exhalation, and that belongs to obstructive disease. Nothing here suggests obstruction: breath sounds are equal, the capnography waveform is rectangular rather than showing the sloped upstroke of obstruction, and no rising pressures are described. It also works directly against the goal, since less time in inspiration means less time holding alveoli open, and this patient needs more of that, not less.

Question 6 of 10

A 74-year-old patient with acute decompensated heart failure has been receiving CPAP for 10 minutes. The patient is now difficult to arouse, the respirations are shallow, and the EtCO₂ has risen from 45 mmHg to 68 mmHg. The vital signs are BP 96/60, P 108, and R 8, with SpO₂ 88%. What should the paramedic do next?

Show the answer and rationale

Correct answer · Remove the mask and begin positive pressure ventilations

CPAP works only while the patient generates adequate spontaneous breaths, because the device supplies pressure rather than breaths. A falling level of consciousness, shallow respirations at a rate of 8, and an end-tidal carbon dioxide climbing from 45 to 68 mmHg are the classic criteria for failure of noninvasive ventilation, and they mean the patient is no longer moving enough gas regardless of what the mask pressure is set to. The rising carbon dioxide is also part of why the patient is hard to arouse, so the two findings feed each other. The correct response is to take over ventilation with a BVM device and prepare for intubation, because waiting for the saturation to fall further spends the window in which the transition can be made in a controlled way.

Why the others are wrong

Increase the CPAP setting: Turning the pressure up is the right adjustment for a patient who is still breathing adequately but whose work of breathing and oxygenation have only partly improved, where more pressure recruits more alveoli and offloads more of the effort. That only works while the patient has a drive to assist, and this patient is difficult to arouse at a rate of 8 with a carbon dioxide of 68. The device cannot deliver a breath the patient does not take, so raising the number changes the pressure but not the number of breaths, while the key supplies the breaths themselves.

Administer nebulized albuterol through the circuit: A nebulized beta agonist is the answer to bronchospasm, where you would hear wheezing with a prolonged expiratory phase in an asthma or chronic obstructive pulmonary disease exacerbation, and it can be run through a CPAP circuit. This patient's problem is decompensated heart failure with a failing respiratory drive, and a bronchodilator does not raise a rate of 8. It also costs something, since the tachycardia it produces is unwelcome at a pulse of 108 with a blood pressure of 96/60, and the key addresses the actual deficit, which is minute ventilation.

Continue the current therapy and reassess in 5 minutes: Continuing and reassessing is correct when a patient on CPAP is trending the right way, with easing work of breathing, a stable or falling carbon dioxide, and a clearing mental status, because the therapy just needs time to work. Every trend in this question runs the other direction, and a rising carbon dioxide with a falling level of consciousness is the definition of noninvasive ventilation failing. The key acts inside the window where the transition is controlled, while this choice waits until the patient arrests and the airway has to be taken under the worst conditions.

Question 7 of 10

A paramedic places a patient on a transport ventilator immediately after rapid sequence intubation. The patient received a long-acting paralytic and has no spontaneous respiratory effort. Which ventilator mode is most appropriate?

Show the answer and rationale

Correct answer · Assist-control ventilation

Mode selection follows one question: how much respiratory drive does the patient have. This patient received a long-acting paralytic and has no spontaneous inspiratory effort at all, so the mode has to deliver every breath on the ventilator's own schedule rather than waiting for the patient to ask for one. Assist-control does exactly that, guaranteeing a set rate and a set volume or pressure for every mandatory breath, so minute ventilation is fixed by the machine and does not depend on the patient. It also fully supports any breath the patient triggers later as the paralytic wears off, which is what makes it the right choice for the whole transport rather than just the next few minutes. No drive means a fully controlled mode.

Why the others are wrong

Pressure support ventilation: the mode for a patient who is breathing on their own but tiring, augmenting each patient-triggered breath with a set inspiratory pressure to unload the work of breathing, and it is the mode used for a weaning trial. It has no set rate of its own, so it delivers exactly nothing to a patient with no inspiratory effort. This patient is chemically paralyzed, so the one thing the mode requires to function is the one thing that has been deliberately removed, and the patient would sit apneic until a backup alarm and rate intervened.

CPAP: holds a single pressure across the entire respiratory cycle, splinting alveoli open, and it is the right tool for a spontaneously breathing patient who needs recruitment and oxygenation support. It delivers no breaths, no rate, and no tidal volume. Applying it to a paralyzed patient means oxygen is being held in the lungs while no gas is actually being exchanged in or out, so the carbon dioxide climbs steadily even while the saturation looks acceptable.

Bilevel positive airway pressure: continuous pressure with a higher pressure added during inspiration, and it is indicated for a spontaneously breathing patient who needs help with ventilation as well as oxygenation, such as a COPD exacerbation retaining carbon dioxide. The mode is built around sensing the patient's own inspiratory effort, and it is a noninvasive support strategy rather than the controlled invasive mode you select for a freshly intubated patient with a secured tube and zero drive. Assist-control's guarantee of both rate and volume is precisely what a paralyzed patient needs and what a support mode cannot promise.

Question 8 of 10

A patient is intubated after 15 minutes of BVM ventilation during a cardiac arrest resuscitation, and return of spontaneous circulation is achieved. On the ventilator the chest rise is shallow, the abdomen is markedly distended and tympanic, the peak inspiratory pressure is 40 cmH2O and the plateau pressure is 36 cmH2O, and breath sounds are equal and clear with a midline trachea. The SpO₂ is 90% and the vital signs are BP 108/64 and P 104. What is the most appropriate next action?

Show the answer and rationale

Correct answer · Insert a gastric tube and decompress the stomach

Prolonged BVM ventilation forces gas into the stomach whenever airway pressures exceed the pressure that holds the esophagus closed, and a distended, tympanic abdomen after 15 minutes of it is the expected result. A full stomach pushes the diaphragm upward and reduces the volume the thorax can accept, which is a compliance problem, so both the peak and the plateau pressures rise together and the delivered volume produces only shallow chest rise. Decompressing the stomach with a gastric tube removes the restriction and lets the diaphragm descend, which lowers the pressures and improves ventilation immediately. Equal, clear breath sounds with a midline trachea rule out the intrathoracic causes of the same pressure pattern, which is what leaves the abdomen as the answer.

Why the others are wrong

Perform bilateral needle decompression of the chest: Needle decompression is the treatment for a tension pneumothorax, which raises airway pressures the same way by squeezing the lung from outside, and it comes with diminished or absent breath sounds on the affected side, a trachea deviated away, distended neck veins, and hypotension. This question deliberately hands you the negatives: breath sounds equal and clear, trachea midline, and a blood pressure of 108/64 in a post-arrest patient. Both conditions compress the lung from outside, but the question locates that compression below the diaphragm with a distended, tympanic abdomen, and needling a chest that is not tense creates two iatrogenic pneumothoraces in a patient who just regained a pulse.

Increase the positive end-expiratory pressure: More positive end-expiratory pressure is the right response to hypoxemia from alveolar collapse in a lung whose compliance is otherwise workable. This lung is being squeezed from outside with a plateau pressure already at 36, so adding pressure raises every number in the circuit, increases the barotrauma risk, and drops venous return in a patient whose pressure is only 108/64 minutes after return of spontaneous circulation. The key lowers those same pressures by removing what is pressing on the diaphragm rather than pushing harder against it.

Withdraw the endotracheal tube 2 cm: Withdrawing the tube treats a right mainstem intubation, which also raises airway pressures because the full tidal volume is being driven into one lung. The clinching finding for that is unequal breath sounds, and this patient's are equal and clear bilaterally, so the tube depth is not the problem. The key follows the finding the question actually gives you, a markedly distended and tympanic abdomen after 15 minutes of BVM ventilation, while pulling back a correctly placed tube risks extubating a post-arrest patient for nothing.

Question 9 of 10

Return of spontaneous circulation is achieved in a 64-year-old patient who was intubated during cardiac arrest, and the patient remains unresponsive. The ventilator is delivering a fraction of inspired oxygen of 1.0 at a rate of 10, the SpO₂ has read 100% for the past 5 minutes, and the EtCO₂ is 38 mmHg with a rectangular waveform. The vital signs are BP 104/64 and P 96. How should the paramedic manage the oxygen?

Show the answer and rationale

Correct answer · Titrate it to keep the SpO₂ 94% to 98%

During the arrest itself the pulse oximeter cannot be trusted, because a reading depends on pulsatile flow, so the highest available oxygen concentration is used and that is why the ventilator is still at 1.0. After circulation returns, a reliable saturation is available again, and this one has read 100 percent for 5 minutes with a good waveform and a pressure of 104 over 64. Sustained delivery of 100 percent oxygen at that point produces arterial oxygen tensions far above normal with no additional benefit, because the hemoglobin is already fully saturated and there is nowhere left to put it. Tissue that has just been reperfused generates oxygen free radicals, and excess oxygen increases that reperfusion injury to the brain and myocardium, which are the two organs the whole resuscitation was for. The post-arrest practice is therefore to titrate the oxygen down to the lowest concentration that maintains a normal saturation of 94 to 98 percent, while keeping the EtCO2 in its normal range and avoiding hyperventilation.

Why the others are wrong

Titrate it to keep the SpO₂ 88% to 92%: A target of 88 to 92 percent belongs to a different patient entirely, the chronic carbon dioxide retainer, typically advanced COPD, where excessive oxygen worsens ventilation-perfusion matching and can blunt respiratory drive. Nothing in this question describes chronic lung disease. This is a brain and a myocardium that were just globally ischemic and are now reperfusing, and deliberately running them at 88 to 92 percent adds a hypoxic insult on top of the ischemic one they already took.

Continue it at 1.0 for the rest of transport: A fraction of inspired oxygen of 1.0 is exactly correct during the arrest, which is why it is already set there, since oxygen delivery is limited by the flow compressions generate and the saturation cannot be measured reliably. Circulation has now returned and the oximeter is trustworthy at 100 percent, so the justification for the setting has expired. Continuing it delivers hyperoxia with zero additional oxygen carried, since saturated hemoglobin cannot hold more, while adding free radical injury to the two organs that matter most.

Discontinue it and ventilate with room air: Room air is the correct starting gas for a newborn resuscitation and for plenty of spontaneously breathing patients whose saturations are normal. Removing supplemental oxygen entirely from a post-arrest patient gives up the ability to titrate at all and risks a desaturation that a freshly reperfused brain tolerates very poorly. The instruction is to come down to a normal target and hold it there, not to withdraw oxygen and watch what happens.

Question 10 of 10

A 24-year-old patient fell from a ladder onto the left side and has increasing difficulty breathing. Breath sounds are diminished on the left and clear on the right, and a crackling sensation is felt under the skin of the left chest wall. The trachea is midline and the neck veins are flat. The patient is alert and speaks in short phrases. The vital signs are BP 124/76, P 104, and R 26, with SpO₂ 91% on room air. Which oxygenation strategy is most appropriate?

Show the answer and rationale

Correct answer · NRB at 15 L/min

Unilateral diminished breath sounds with air in the subcutaneous tissue after blunt chest trauma describes a pneumothorax, and the midline trachea, flat neck veins and normal blood pressure say it has not yet become a tension pneumothorax. Every form of noninvasive positive pressure pushes gas across the visceral pleural defect on every breath, and doing that to a simple pneumothorax is a recognized way to convert it into a tension pneumothorax in a patient who was previously stable. Oxygen delivered without positive pressure raises the alveolar oxygen concentration and speeds reabsorption of pleural air without adding to the leak. The patient is monitored closely for the developing tension physiology that would then call for decompression.

Why the others are wrong

CPAP at 5 cmH2O: A low setting is still positive pressure applied across the pleural defect on every breath. There is no pressure below which CPAP becomes safe in a known pneumothorax; a lower number only slows the rate at which the pleural air accumulates.

CPAP at 10 cmH2O: A higher setting drives pleural air accumulation faster, so tension physiology develops sooner. The oxygenation benefit does not offset converting a stable injury into an immediately life-threatening one.

Bilevel noninvasive ventilation: Bilevel ventilation applies positive pressure throughout the respiratory cycle and uses inspiratory pressures higher than CPAP, so it carries the same risk to a greater degree.

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