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10 free Paramedic practice questions: Advanced Neurologic Emergencies

These are real questions from the same bank the app draws from. Each one is written to the NREMT Paramedic content specifications and kept inside the Paramedic scope of practice. Pick an answer and you get the full rationale, including why the other three options are wrong.

Work through all 10, then move on to the next topic. When you want the full picture, the free Paramedic diagnostic covers every topic in one sitting. No account needed for any of it.

Question 1 of 10

A 66-year-old patient has left-sided weakness and gaze deviation that started 25 minutes ago. The vital signs are BP 222/118, P 88, R 18, and SpO₂ 97% on room air. The blood glucose level is 108 mg/dL. A crew member says the pressure means this has to be a bleed. Which action is most appropriate?

Show the answer and rationale

Correct answer · Transport for imaging and prearrival notification

This patient is having a stroke. The left-sided weakness and the gaze deviation started 25 minutes ago. Nothing you have in the field tells you whether this stroke is a clot or a bleed. Neither a stroke scale nor a systolic of 222 can tell you. Only imaging at the hospital can. That's why the field plan is the same for both kinds of stroke. Manage the airway and suction as needed. Ventilate to a normal carbon dioxide level. Correct a low glucose, though this patient's glucose of 108 is normal. Raise the head about 30 degrees. Do not give an antihypertensive. Transport fast and call ahead so the hospital is ready for imaging. Gaze deviation with dense weakness can also mean a large vessel occlusion. Your regional plan decides which hospital that patient goes to.

Why the others are wrong

Give an antihypertensive for the bleed: Lowering the blood pressure is a real hospital treatment for a bleed in the brain. You cannot tell a bleed from a clot without imaging. If this stroke is a clot, the high pressure is what pushes blood to the brain tissue around the clot. The hospital sets a pressure goal once imaging shows which stroke this is.

Hyperventilate to lower intracranial pressure: Hyperventilation lowers carbon dioxide, and low carbon dioxide narrows the blood vessels in the brain. Narrow vessels cut blood flow to a brain that is already short on it. Hyperventilation is saved for a short time when a patient shows active signs of herniation. This patient shows no signs of herniation, so ventilate to a normal carbon dioxide level.

Position the patient flat for perfusion: Laying a patient flat comes from shock care, where the goal is raising perfusion. In a stroke, lying flat slows the blood draining out of the head, and the pressure inside the skull goes up. Raise the head about 30 degrees and keep the neck in line.

Question 2 of 10

A 61-year-old patient with a sudden severe headache vomited once and is now unresponsive. The right pupil is 6 mm and sluggish and the left is 3 mm. The vital signs are BP 198/78, P 44, and SpO₂ 92% on room air, with respirations irregular at 8. The blood glucose level is 118 mg/dL. What do these vital signs indicate?

Show the answer and rationale

Correct answer · Rising pressure inside the skull

These vital signs mean the pressure inside the skull is rising. They make up Cushing's triad. Cushing's triad is high blood pressure with a wide pulse pressure, a slow pulse, and irregular breathing. This patient has all three. The pressure is 198/78, which is a wide pulse pressure. The pulse is 44, and the respirations are irregular at 8. The pressure in the skull has climbed high enough to push the brain against structures it should not touch. The right pupil is 6 mm and sluggish, the left is 3 mm, and the patient is unresponsive. Put together, these findings mean the brain is herniating. Ventilate to a normal carbon dioxide level. Keep the head raised about 30 degrees with the neck midline. Brief, mild hyperventilation is only a short bridge when your protocol calls for it, not a setting you leave on.

Why the others are wrong

A vagal response to the vomiting: Vomiting can drop the heart rate through a vagal response, and this patient did vomit. A vagal response does not come with a systolic pressure of 198 and irregular breathing. A vagal response also does not make one pupil dilate.

Decompensated shock from the bleed: Decompensated shock is low blood pressure with a fast, weak pulse. This patient's pressure is 198/78 and the pulse is 44. A bleed inside the skull kills by raising pressure in a closed space, not by the volume of blood lost.

An opioid effect on the brainstem: Slow breathing at 8 in an unresponsive patient is the pattern you see with opioids. An opioid gives you small, equal pupils. This patient has a 6 mm pupil on one side, and a sudden severe headache came before the collapse.

Question 3 of 10

A 27-year-old patient who is 34 weeks pregnant has a generalized seizure at home with no seizure history. The seizure has lasted 3 minutes and is ongoing. The vital signs are BP 176/108, P 104, R 20, and SpO₂ 95% on room air. The blood glucose level is 98 mg/dL. Which medication should the paramedic give?

Show the answer and rationale

Correct answer · Magnesium sulfate

This patient is having an eclamptic seizure. The patient is 34 weeks pregnant with no seizure history, and the pressure is 176/108. A new seizure with a pressure that high in a 34 week pregnancy is eclampsia, not a seizure disorder. Eclampsia comes from severe high blood pressure. The blood vessels in the brain spasm, their lining stops working normally, and the brain loses control of its own blood flow. Magnesium sulfate calms the brain cells and eases that spasm. Magnesium treats the cause instead of only stopping the convulsion. That's why magnesium sulfate replaces the benzodiazepine you would normally give first. Place the patient on the left side and transport rapidly to a hospital that can care for obstetric patients.

Why the others are wrong

Midazolam: the first line benzodiazepine on almost every seizure call. A benzodiazepine only quiets the convulsion. Midazolam does not fix the spasm in the brain's blood vessels that is driving this seizure. Magnesium sulfate goes first, and midazolam follows only if the seizures keep going.

Calcium gluconate: the antidote for magnesium toxicity. No magnesium has been given yet, so there is nothing to reverse. Once magnesium is running, lost deep tendon reflexes, a falling respiratory rate, or a dropping level of consciousness send you to calcium gluconate.

Dextrose: Checking the glucose on every seizure is correct practice, and dextrose fixes a low one. This patient's glucose is 98 mg/dL, which is normal. Dextrose has nothing to correct and only delays the magnesium.

Question 4 of 10

A 44-year-old with years of heavy daily drinking has a witnessed generalized seizure at a detox facility. Staff report the last drink was about 30 hours ago and that the patient has no seizure history. The episode stops on its own after 90 seconds and the patient is postictal. The blood glucose level is 96 mg/dL. Which cause best fits this seizure?

Show the answer and rationale

Correct answer · Alcohol withdrawal after the recently stopped daily drinking

This seizure is from alcohol withdrawal. The patient has been drinking heavily every day for years, and the last drink was about 30 hours ago. Alcohol withdrawal seizures usually show up between 6 and 48 hours after the last drink. Thirty hours is right inside that window. Alcohol calms the brain by boosting GABA, the brain's main calming signal. Alcohol also blocks the NMDA receptors that excite the brain. After years of heavy drinking, the brain adjusts to balance the alcohol. The brain turns its GABA side down and its NMDA side up. When the drinking suddenly stops, nothing balances the NMDA side anymore. The brain is left overexcited, and it fires a generalized seizure. Expect this patient to need a higher benzodiazepine dose than a routine seizure would. Watch for delirium tremens, which can still follow.

Why the others are wrong

Thiamine deficiency producing an encephalopathy: Heavy drinkers really are low on thiamine, and untreated thiamine deficiency causes Wernicke encephalopathy. Wernicke encephalopathy shows up as confusion, abnormal eye movements like nystagmus or ophthalmoplegia, and ataxia. A single generalized seizure that stops on its own after 90 seconds does not match. Nothing in this question describes eye or gait problems.

A first presentation of an ordinary seizure disorder: A first seizure in a 44-year-old does need a workup for a new seizure disorder. Here the seizure came about 30 hours after years of heavy daily drinking stopped. A new seizure disorder does not explain that timing, and the staff already gave you the drinking history.

Acute alcohol intoxication lowering the seizure threshold: Alcohol is a CNS depressant while it is in the system, and intoxication can lower the seizure threshold. Intoxication and withdrawal do opposite things to the brain. This patient's last drink was 30 hours ago, so this patient is in withdrawal, not intoxicated.

Question 5 of 10

A 59-year-old patient with type 2 diabetes has sudden left-sided weakness and slurred speech that began 30 minutes ago. The patient is awake and follows commands, and the skin is warm and dry. The blood glucose level is 268 mg/dL. The vital signs are BP 152/86, P 78, R 18, and SpO₂ 96% on room air. What should the crew do about that blood glucose level?

Show the answer and rationale

Correct answer · It adds to the injury, so give no glucose-containing fluid at all

This patient is having a stroke, and the glucose of 268 makes the stroke worse. The sudden left-sided weakness and slurred speech that started 30 minutes ago point to a stroke, not a diabetic emergency. Brain tissue in a stroke is not getting enough blood flow. A high glucose makes that tissue burn sugar without oxygen. Lactic acid builds up in the brain tissue around the stroke, and the area of permanent damage gets bigger. You cannot safely lower a 268 in the field. Your job is to keep the glucose from climbing. Run an isotonic fluid with no dextrose in it. Give nothing with glucose, even though this patient is diabetic. Pass the glucose and the last known well time to the stroke team.

Why the others are wrong

It is incidental here, since only a low glucose harms the brain: Most glucose checks in a stroke are looking for a low reading. Hypoglycemia is the stroke mimic you cannot miss. A high glucose also hurts brain tissue that is short on blood flow. This 268 is part of the injury.

It explains the weakness, so treat the high glucose as the problem: A diabetic with a sudden neurologic change often gets treated as a sugar emergency. A level of 268 does not cause weakness on one side or slurred speech. The pulse is 78, the skin is warm and dry, and the respirations are 18. None of those fit a hyperglycemic crisis. The high glucose did not cause this stroke.

It calls for a fluid bolus to bring the glucose down before arrival: A fluid bolus is the right treatment for diabetic ketoacidosis and hyperosmolar states, where a high glucose comes with dehydration. This patient has warm dry skin, a pulse of 78, and no signs of dehydration. There is no volume to replace. A bolus also will not bring a 268 down much on the way in.

Question 6 of 10

A 24-year-old patient was stabbed once in the left side of the back at the level of the shoulder blade. The left leg is weak, and the patient cannot say where the left foot is positioned without looking at it. Pinprick and temperature are absent in the right leg, while the left leg feels pinprick normally. Which cord syndrome does this pattern match?

Show the answer and rationale

Correct answer · Brown-Séquard syndrome

This is Brown-Séquard syndrome. Brown-Séquard syndrome is a hemisection, meaning half of the spinal cord is cut. A hemisection gives you crossed findings. Movement and position sense are lost on the same side as the injury. Pain and temperature are lost on the other side. This patient has a weak left leg and cannot tell where the left foot is without looking. The right leg has no pinprick or temperature feeling, and the left leg feels pinprick normally. A hemisection is the only cord injury that splits the findings by side like that. The mechanism fits too. A hemisection usually comes from a penetrating injury like this stab wound, not from a fall. Field care is the same for all of the incomplete cord syndromes. The name matters for your report and for what the receiving team should expect.

Why the others are wrong

A complete cord transection: means the cord is cut all the way through, and a stab wound to the back can do that. A complete transection leaves no movement and no feeling below the injury on either side. This patient still moves the right leg and still feels pinprick in the left leg. The injury is incomplete.

Anterior cord syndrome: takes away movement, pain, and temperature, while position sense, vibration, and light touch are kept. Anterior cord syndrome hits both sides the same way. This patient lost position sense on the left and pain on the right, and a split by side is a hemisection.

Central cord syndrome: causes weakness that is worse in the arms than in the legs. Central cord syndrome usually follows a hyperextension injury, often in an older patient with a narrow spinal canal. This patient is 24 with one stab wound to the back, and the findings are in the legs.

Question 7 of 10

A 19-year-old was hit in the side of the head by a thrown ball, was briefly unresponsive, then woke and talked normally for about 25 minutes. The patient has now become very difficult to rouse, and the left pupil is larger than the right and slow to react. Which bleed does this course fit, and why?

Show the answer and rationale

Correct answer · An epidural bleed, because arterial pressure fills the space fast

This course fits an epidural bleed. The patient was hit in the side of the head and was briefly unresponsive. Then the patient woke up and talked normally for about 25 minutes. Now the patient is very hard to rouse, and the left pupil is larger and slow to react. An epidural bleed comes from a torn artery outside the dura. Arterial pressure pumps blood into that space fast. The patient wakes up once the first concussion wears off and looks fine for a while. Then the clot grows and runs out of room, and the patient gets worse quickly. The larger pupil is on the same side as the bleed. The pressure is pushing the brain against the nerve that controls that pupil. Get moving to a neurosurgical center. Keep the head up about 30 degrees and the neck midline. Ventilate to a normal carbon dioxide level and protect the blood pressure. Call ahead with the time of each change you saw.

Why the others are wrong

A subdural bleed, because venous blood collects over hours: A subdural bleed is common after a head strike and belongs on the list. A subdural bleed comes from veins, and venous pressure fills the space slowly. Subdurals take hours to days to show up, not 25 minutes.

A diffuse axonal injury, because shearing deficits appear early: Diffuse axonal injury comes from shearing during violent head movement, and it does cause a severe deficit. The deficit from shearing is there from the moment of injury. This patient talked normally for about 25 minutes first.

A subarachnoid bleed, because it is at its worst from the start: A subarachnoid bleed does start suddenly and severely, and those patients do get worse. A subarachnoid bleed is at its worst the moment it starts. This patient had a normal stretch before getting worse.

Question 8 of 10

A 24-year-old was the restrained driver in a high speed rollover. The head has no wound, no swelling, and no deformity, and the neck is midline and nontender. The patient does not open the eyes, makes no sound, and extends both arms to a painful stimulus. The vital signs are BP 128/74, P 96, R 14, and SpO₂ 96% on room air. Which injury best explains this?

Show the answer and rationale

Correct answer · Diffuse axonal injury from shearing of white matter tracts

This patient has a diffuse axonal injury. The head has no wound, no swelling, and no deformity. The patient still does not open the eyes, makes no sound, and extends both arms to pain. A high speed rollover spins the head hard. The brain twists inside the skull, and the long white matter tracts that connect one part of the brain to another get sheared. Shearing does not need an impact you can see. A severe deficit with a normal looking head is the classic finding for diffuse axonal injury. Do not downgrade this patient because the scalp is clean. Give the same care you give any severe head injury. Keep the oxygen saturation at or above 94, keep the blood pressure up, and ventilate to a normal carbon dioxide level. Keep the glucose and the temperature normal. Get moving to a center that can image and operate.

Why the others are wrong

An epidural bleed from a torn middle meningeal artery: An epidural bleed is the classic fast decline after a head injury. This bleed usually comes from a blow to the side of the head that leaves a mark. An epidural also gives a lucid interval, where the patient talks normally before getting worse. This patient's deficit has been there from the start.

A basilar skull fracture with bleeding into the sinuses: A basilar skull fracture can come from a serious crash like this one. A basilar fracture shows bruising around the eyes or behind the ears, or fluid from the nose or ears. None of those findings are present.

A depressed skull fracture pressing on the motor cortex: A depressed skull fracture presses on brain tissue and can cause a focal deficit. You can usually see or feel the depression. This patient's head has no wound, no swelling, and no deformity.

Question 9 of 10

A 44-year-old struck by a car has a severe head injury, does not follow commands, and is vomiting repeatedly. The vital signs are BP 86/54, P 128, R 8 and irregular, and SpO₂ 87% on an NRB. The crew has decided the airway has to be controlled now and is preparing to intubate. What protects the brain during that attempt?

Show the answer and rationale

Correct answer · Support the pressure and preoxygenate before any induction agent

Support the blood pressure and preoxygenate before you give any induction agent. In a severe head injury, hypoxia and hypotension during intubation are the two events most tied to a worse outcome. This patient already has both. The blood pressure is 86/54 and the oxygen saturation is 87% on a nonrebreather. You still have to control the airway now. The patient is vomiting repeatedly with no protective reflexes, and waiting is not an option. Preoxygenate on purpose. Bring the blood pressure up before you induce, if you can. Use the smallest dose of any drug that drops the pressure. Sedatives and positive pressure ventilation both cut the blood returning to the heart. A patient at 86 systolic cannot afford any more drop. A diluted push dose of epinephrine, prepared and titrated per protocol, is the standard way to cover that expected drop. The goal is a tube placed without adding a hypoxic or hypotensive episode.

Why the others are wrong

Hyperventilate through the attempt to hold the pressure down: Hyperventilation does lower the pressure inside the skull, and it has a narrow role when a patient is actively herniating. Routine hyperventilation narrows the blood vessels in the brain and cuts blood flow to tissue that is already short on blood flow. This patient has no signs of herniation.

Use a full induction dose so the first attempt is not interrupted: A full induction dose makes the patient easier to intubate, and a failed first attempt costs time. At 86 systolic, a full dose gets you that first pass along with a hypotensive episode. One hypotensive episode roughly doubles the death rate in a severe head injury.

Skip preoxygenation to shorten the time without ventilation: Speed does matter when a patient is desaturating, and a shorter time without breaths sounds safer. Preoxygenation is what gives you safe seconds during the attempt. Skipping preoxygenation at 87% guarantees the hypoxic episode you were trying to avoid.

Question 10 of 10

A 33-year-old with a significant head injury has been packaged with a cervical collar and secured to the stretcher. The collar straps are pulled tight across both sides of the neck, and the head is turned slightly to the left inside the collar. What should the crew change before starting transport?

Show the answer and rationale

Correct answer · Loosen the straps and bring the head back to midline

Loosen the straps and bring the head back to midline. The collar straps are pulled tight across both sides of the neck, and the head is turned to the left. Blood gets into the head under arterial pressure. Blood leaves the head through veins in the neck that have almost no pressure behind them. A tight strap squeezes those veins. Turning the head kinks the same veins. The blood backs up inside a skull with no room to spare, and the pressure inside the skull goes up. This is called increased intracranial pressure, or ICP. Fixing the packaging is part of treating this patient. Raise the head about 30 degrees if nothing else rules it out. Keep the neck midline and use a properly sized collar. The straps should be snug enough to hold the patient without pressing on the sides of the neck. Checking the packaging costs nothing. The packaging is one of the few things in a severe head injury that you control completely.

Why the others are wrong

Remove the collar and hold manual stabilization instead: Manual stabilization is a real technique, and holding the head by hand avoids the pressure a collar puts on the neck. Holding a head by hand for a whole transport is not practical. Manual stabilization also leaves the real problem in place, which is the tight straps and a head that is not midline.

Tighten the straps further and pad under the head: Secure packaging matters, and a patient who shifts during transport is a real problem. Tightening the straps squeezes the same neck veins the head drains through, and the pressure inside the skull goes up.

Leave the packaging as it is and raise the foot end: Raising the foot end moves blood toward the core in a patient with a pressure problem. Putting a head injured patient head down raises the pressure inside the skull.

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