10 free Paramedic practice questions: Advanced Neurologic Emergencies
These are real questions from the same bank the app draws from. Each one is written to the NREMT Paramedic content specifications and kept inside the Paramedic scope of practice. Pick an answer and you get the full rationale, including why the other three options are wrong.
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Question 1 of 10
A 66-year-old patient has left-sided weakness and gaze deviation that started 25 minutes ago. The vital signs are BP 222/118, P 88, R 18, and SpO₂ 97% on room air. The blood glucose level is 108 mg/dL. A crew member says the pressure means this has to be a bleed. Which action is most appropriate?
Show the answer and rationale
Correct answer · Transport for imaging and prearrival notification
Nothing available to you in the field tells you whether this is a clot or a bleed. Not the screening tool, not the severity score, not a systolic of 222. That takes imaging in the hospital, which is why the field plan is identical for both: airway and suction, ventilate to normocapnia, correct a low glucose, head elevated about 30 degrees, no antihypertensive, and rapid transport with a prearrival notification. Gaze deviation with dense weakness also raises the question of a large vessel occlusion, so the destination decision belongs in your regional plan.
Why the others are wrong
Give an antihypertensive for the bleed: A systolic of 222 pushes people toward a bleed, and lowering pressure in a bleed is a real hospital treatment. You cannot tell which stroke this is without imaging, and in an ischemic stroke that pressure is what perfuses the tissue around the clot. The hospital sets pressure targets once it knows what it is looking at.
Hyperventilate to lower intracranial pressure: Hyperventilation does drop carbon dioxide and constrict cerebral vessels, so it sounds like a way to buy room inside the skull. That constriction starves a brain already short of flow, and it is reserved as a brief bridge for active signs of herniation. Nothing here shows herniation, so ventilate to normocapnia.
Position the patient flat for perfusion: Lying a patient flat raises pressure inside the head by slowing venous drainage out of it, which is the opposite of what this brain needs. Students borrow the position from shock care, where raising perfusion is the goal. Elevate about 30 degrees and keep the neck midline.
Question 2 of 10
A 61-year-old patient with a sudden severe headache vomited once and is now unresponsive. The right pupil is 6 mm and sluggish and the left is 3 mm. The vital signs are BP 198/78, P 44, and SpO₂ 92% on room air, with respirations irregular at 8. The blood glucose level is 118 mg/dL. What do these vital signs indicate?
Show the answer and rationale
Correct answer · Rising pressure inside the skull
Hypertension with a widening pulse pressure, bradycardia, and irregular respirations is Cushing's triad, and it means the pressure inside the skull has climbed far enough that the brain is being forced against structures it should not touch. A pressure of 198/78 is a wide pulse pressure, the pulse is 44, and the breathing has gone irregular, so all three pieces are in front of you. Add the unequal pupils and the unresponsiveness and this is active herniation. Ventilate to normocapnia as your baseline, keep the head elevated about 30 degrees with the neck midline, and reserve brief mild hyperventilation as a protocol-driven bridge rather than a setting you dial in and leave.
Why the others are wrong
A vagal response to the vomiting: Vomiting really can drop a heart rate through a vagal response, and the patient did vomit, which makes this feel like it explains the 44. A vagal episode does not come with a systolic of 198 and irregular respirations. It also does not make one pupil dilate.
Decompensated shock from the bleed: A bleeding brain suggests blood loss, and students carry shock into any hemorrhage. Decompensated shock is hypotension with a fast, weak pulse, and this patient is hypertensive and bradycardic. Intracranial bleeding kills through pressure inside a closed skull, not through volume lost.
An opioid effect on the brainstem: Respirations of 8 in an unresponsive patient is the pattern that makes everyone think of opioids, and it is worth ruling out on many calls. Opioid effect brings small, equal pupils, and this patient has a 6 mm pupil on one side. The sudden severe headache before the collapse points somewhere else.
Question 3 of 10
A 27-year-old patient who is 34 weeks pregnant has a generalized seizure at home with no seizure history. The seizure has lasted 3 minutes and is ongoing. The vital signs are BP 176/108, P 104, R 20, and SpO₂ 95% on room air. The blood glucose level is 98 mg/dL. Which medication should the paramedic give?
Show the answer and rationale
Correct answer · Magnesium sulfate
Eclampsia breaks the seizure algorithm. A seizure in a patient who is pregnant or recently postpartum, with a blood pressure like this one, is eclampsia until proven otherwise, and the treatment is magnesium sulfate rather than a benzodiazepine. Add left lateral positioning, a calm environment, and rapid transport to an obstetric facility. This is the one seizure presentation where the first-line drug you reach for on every other call is wrong.
Why the others are wrong
Midazolam: A benzodiazepine is first-line for almost every seizure you will meet, and that habit is strong. Eclampsia is the named exception to the algorithm. Magnesium sulfate is what treats the eclamptic process itself, while a benzodiazepine can quiet the convulsion without touching what is driving it, which is why magnesium is the drug here.
Levetiracetam: a genuine second-line agent for a seizure that has not responded to two benzodiazepines. Nothing has been given yet, so there is no failed first-line drug to escalate from. Second-line agents also do not address what is driving an eclamptic seizure.
Dextrose: Checking a blood glucose level on every seizure is correct, and it is the fastest reversible cause to find. This blood glucose level is 98 mg/dL, so there is nothing to correct. Giving dextrose to a patient with a normal glucose treats nothing and delays the drug that would work.
Question 4 of 10
A 44-year-old with years of heavy daily drinking has a witnessed generalized seizure at a detox facility. Staff report the last drink was about 30 hours ago and that the patient has no seizure history. The episode stops on its own after 90 seconds and the patient is postictal. The blood glucose level is 96 mg/dL. Which cause best fits this seizure?
Show the answer and rationale
Correct answer · Alcohol withdrawal after the recently stopped daily drinking
Withdrawal seizures run on a clock, and the clock is the discriminator. They classically land inside the first 12 to 48 hours after the last drink, which puts 30 hours right in the middle of the window. That timing also separates withdrawal from intoxication, because a patient who is still drunk is sedated rather than hyperexcitable. Treat the seizure the way you treat any other one, with a benzodiazepine, but know that these patients often need a larger dose than a typical seizure takes, and that underdosing is the error that keeps them seizing. Check a glucose, look for a head injury the patient may not remember, and keep watching the clock, because a withdrawal seizure at 30 hours is a warning that the harder part is still ahead.
Why the others are wrong
Thiamine deficiency producing an encephalopathy: Chronic heavy drinkers really are thiamine depleted, and that deficiency causes a brain problem worth treating. It shows up as confusion, eye movement changes, and an unsteady walk rather than as a single generalized seizure at the 30 hour mark.
A first presentation of an ordinary seizure disorder: A first seizure in an adult does deserve a workup, and sometimes that is what it turns out to be. A new disorder does not explain why this seizure arrived on the second day without alcohol, and settling for it lets the crew miss what comes next.
Acute alcohol intoxication lowering the seizure threshold: Alcohol and seizures do travel together, so blaming the drinking is a reasonable first thought. Alcohol is a depressant while it is on board and the seizure risk arrives on the way down, which is why the time since the last drink is the fact that matters.
Question 5 of 10
A 59-year-old patient with type 2 diabetes has sudden left-sided weakness and slurred speech that began 30 minutes ago. The patient is awake and follows commands, and the skin is warm and dry. The blood glucose level is 268 mg/dL. The vital signs are BP 152/86, P 78, R 18, and SpO₂ 96% on room air. What should the crew do about that blood glucose level?
Show the answer and rationale
Correct answer · It adds to the injury, so give no glucose-containing fluid at all
The injured brain wants a normal sugar, and normal cuts both ways. You learn the glucose check as a hunt for a low reading, and that is fair, because hypoglycemia is the stroke mimic you cannot afford to miss, but the same rule that says correct a low number says avoid a high one, since extra glucose worsens injury in tissue that is already short of flow. Nothing in your drug bag brings a 268 down in the field, so the work is to keep from adding to it. Hang an isotonic fluid rather than anything carrying dextrose, pass on the dextrose that an altered stroke patient can tempt you into, and give the receiving team the number along with the last known well and the anticoagulant history. Read the rest of this patient while you are at it. The pulse is 78, the breathing is quiet at 18, and the skin is warm and dry, so there is no dehydration and no deep rapid breathing pointing at a diabetic crisis. What you have is a stroke in a patient who also has diabetes, and that sugar is a number you keep from climbing rather than a problem you treat.
Why the others are wrong
It is incidental here, since only a low glucose harms the brain: Almost everything you were taught about checking a glucose is aimed at catching a low one, and in a stroke that is the mimic that matters most, so reading a high number as background noise has real logic behind it. A high glucose is its own insult to tissue that is already starving for flow, which is why the target is a normal sugar rather than simply a sugar above the floor.
It explains the weakness, so treat the high glucose as the problem: Diabetes sitting next to an altered patient is a pairing that gets treated as a sugar problem every day of the week, and the history is right there in front of you. A level of 268 does not produce one-sided weakness or slurred speech, and a patient with warm dry skin, a pulse of 78, and quiet breathing is not in a hyperglycemic crisis.
It calls for a fluid bolus to bring the glucose down before arrival: Fluid is the backbone of care in the hyperglycemic emergencies, so reaching for a bolus when the number is high is a habit built on real practice. This patient has no volume deficit to replace and a bolus does not meaningfully move a glucose level, so it spends effort on the one number you cannot change in the field.
Question 6 of 10
A 24-year-old patient was stabbed once in the left side of the back at the level of the shoulder blade. The left leg is weak, and the patient cannot say where the left foot is positioned without looking at it. Pinprick and temperature are absent in the right leg, while the left leg feels pinprick normally. Which cord syndrome does this pattern match?
Show the answer and rationale
Correct answer · Brown-Séquard syndrome
Crossed findings are the signature, and a hemisection is the only cord injury that produces them. Half the cord is cut, so movement and position sense go on that same side while pain and temperature go on the other. That is exactly this patient: a weak left leg that cannot find itself in space, and a right leg that feels nothing sharp. The mechanism fits as well, since a hemisection is usually penetrating rather than the result of a fall. Keep the three incomplete syndromes apart by their signatures. Crossed findings are a hemisection, motor and pain lost with position sense surviving is anterior cord, and arms worse than legs is central cord. Field care is identical for all three, so the name earns its keep in the report you hand over and in the expectation you set for the team taking the patient.
Why the others are wrong
A complete cord transection: A deficit this striking can read as a cord cut through, and the mechanism here really is a blade. A complete injury leaves nothing below the level on either side, and this patient still moves the right leg and still feels pinprick on the left, which makes the injury incomplete.
Anterior cord syndrome: Anterior cord also produces a dramatic motor deficit, which puts it on the list for any cord injury. Its pattern is not sided, since motor function goes along with pain and temperature while position sense, vibration, and light touch survive. This patient lost position sense on one side and pain on the other.
Central cord syndrome: Central cord is the incomplete syndrome most people name first, because it is the one they see. It runs arms worse than legs after a hyperextension injury, classically in an older patient with a narrowed spinal canal, and nothing about one stab wound in a 24-year-old matches that.
Question 7 of 10
A 19-year-old was hit in the side of the head by a thrown ball, was briefly unresponsive, then woke and talked normally for about 25 minutes. The patient has now become very difficult to rouse, and the left pupil is larger than the right and slow to react. Which bleed does this course fit, and why?
Show the answer and rationale
Correct answer · An epidural bleed, because arterial pressure fills the space fast
The pattern to carry is a knock, a wake up, and a crash. A torn artery outside the dura pumps blood into that space under arterial pressure, so there is a window where the initial concussion wears off and the patient looks fine, and then the growing clot runs out of room and the patient drops. The blown pupil on the same side as the bleed is the pressure pushing the brain against the nerve that controls it. The vessel is the reason for the timeline, so you do not have to memorize the course separately from the anatomy. Arterial is fast, venous is slow. Treat what you can control while you drive to a neurosurgical center. Head up about 30 degrees, neck midline, a normal carbon dioxide, a protected blood pressure, and a call ahead with the time of each change you watched happen.
Why the others are wrong
A subdural bleed, because venous blood collects over hours: Subdural bleeds are common and they belong on the list for any head strike. Venous pressure fills a space slowly, so subdurals take hours to days to declare themselves rather than 25 minutes.
A diffuse axonal injury, because shearing deficits appear early: Shearing injury is worth considering after any violent head movement, and it does produce a profound deficit. Its deficit is present from the moment of injury rather than arriving after a stretch of normal conversation.
A subarachnoid bleed, because it is at its worst from the start: A sudden severe presentation does fit a subarachnoid bleed, and those patients do decline. That bleed is at its worst the instant it starts, which is the opposite of the quiet interval this patient had.
Question 8 of 10
A 24-year-old was the restrained driver in a high speed rollover. The head has no wound, no swelling, and no deformity, and the neck is midline and nontender. The patient does not open the eyes, makes no sound, and extends both arms to a painful stimulus. The vital signs are BP 128/74, P 96, R 14, and SpO₂ 96% on room air. Which injury best explains this?
Show the answer and rationale
Correct answer · Diffuse axonal injury from shearing of white matter tracts
The absence of external findings is information rather than reassurance. A rollover spins the head hard enough that the brain twists inside the skull, and the long white matter tracts connecting one region to another get sheared. None of that requires an impact you can see, which is why a profound deficit with an unremarkable looking head is the signature. Do not downgrade a patient because the scalp is clean, and do not go hunting for a bleed that would have left a mark. The care is the same bundle you owe any severe head injury. Keep the saturation at or above 94, keep the pressure up, ventilate to a normal carbon dioxide, keep the glucose and the temperature normal, and get moving to a center that can image and operate.
Why the others are wrong
An epidural bleed from a torn middle meningeal artery: An epidural bleed is the classic rapid decline after a head injury, so reaching for it is natural. It comes from a blow to the side of the head that usually leaves a mark, and it produces a lucid interval rather than a deficit present from the first moment.
A basilar skull fracture with bleeding into the sinuses: Basilar fractures come from serious mechanisms like this one, so the thought fits the crash. A basilar fracture announces itself with bruising around the eyes or behind the ears and fluid from the nose or ears, and none of that is present.
A depressed skull fracture pressing on the motor cortex: A depressed fracture does press on brain tissue and it can cause a focal deficit. You can usually see or feel the depression, and this head has no wound, no swelling, and no deformity anywhere.
Question 9 of 10
A 44-year-old struck by a car has a severe head injury, does not follow commands, and is vomiting repeatedly. The vital signs are BP 86/54, P 128, R 8 and irregular, and SpO₂ 87% on a nonrebreather mask. The crew has decided the airway has to be controlled now and is preparing to intubate. What protects the brain during that attempt?
Show the answer and rationale
Correct answer · Support the pressure and preoxygenate before any induction agent
Hypoxia and hypotension during intubation are the two events most tied to a worse outcome in a severe head injury, and this patient arrives with both already in progress. The airway still has to be controlled, since vomiting with no protective reflexes kills faster than anything else on the list, so the answer is not to wait. What changes is the setup. Preoxygenate deliberately, bring the pressure up before you induce where you can, and use the smallest dose of any agent that drops pressure, because a sedative and positive pressure ventilation both cut venous return and a patient at 86 systolic has nothing left to give. A diluted push dose of epinephrine, prepared and titrated per protocol, is the standard way to buffer that expected drop. The tube is not the goal. Getting the tube without adding a hypoxic or a hypotensive episode is the goal.
Why the others are wrong
Hyperventilate through the attempt to hold the pressure down: Hyperventilation does lower the pressure inside the skull, and it has a narrow role when a patient is actively herniating. Routine hyperventilation constricts cerebral vessels and cuts flow to tissue that is already starving, and this patient has no herniation signs to justify it.
Use a full induction dose so the first attempt is not interrupted: A deeper patient is an easier patient to intubate, and a failed first attempt costs time you do not have. A full induction dose at 86 systolic buys that first pass with a hypotensive episode, and one of those roughly doubles mortality in a severe head injury.
Skip preoxygenation to shorten the time without ventilation: Shortening the apneic time sounds protective, and speed does matter when a patient is desaturating. Preoxygenation is what buys the safe seconds during the attempt, and skipping it at 87 percent guarantees the hypoxic episode you were trying to avoid.
Question 10 of 10
A 33-year-old with a significant head injury has been packaged with a cervical collar and secured to the stretcher. The collar straps are pulled tight across both sides of the neck, and the head is turned slightly to the left inside the collar. What should the crew change before starting transport?
Show the answer and rationale
Correct answer · Loosen the straps and bring the head back to midline
Blood gets into the head under arterial pressure, and it has to get back out through veins in the neck that have almost nothing behind them. Squeeze those veins with a tight strap, or kink them by turning the head, and the blood backs up inside a skull with no room to spare, which pushes the pressure right back up. That makes the packaging itself a treatment. Head elevated about 30 degrees if nothing else forbids it, neck midline, a properly sized collar, and straps snug enough to hold the patient without pressing on the sides of the neck. It costs nothing to check, and it is one of the few things in a severe head injury that you control completely.
Why the others are wrong
Remove the collar and hold manual stabilization instead: Manual stabilization is a legitimate technique and it does avoid the pressure a collar puts on the neck. Holding a head by hand for an entire transport is not practical, and it does not fix the real problem, which is a strap position and a head that is not midline.
Tighten the straps further and pad under the head: Secure packaging is drilled into everyone, and a patient who shifts during transport is a real problem. Tightening a strap across the sides of the neck squeezes exactly the veins the head drains through, so the security comes at the cost of the pressure inside the skull.
Leave the packaging as it is and raise the foot end: Raising the foot end is the reflex for a patient with a pressure problem, and it does move blood toward the core. Putting a head injured patient head down raises the pressure inside the skull, which is the opposite of what this patient needs.
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