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10 free Paramedic practice questions: Advanced Trauma Assessment and Resuscitation

These are real questions from the same bank the app draws from. Each one is written to the NREMT Paramedic content specifications and kept inside the Paramedic scope of practice. Pick an answer and you get the full rationale, including why the other three options are wrong.

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Question 1 of 10

A 51-year-old patient with a severe closed head injury is intubated, and waveform capnography confirms correct tube placement with breath sounds equal bilaterally. The initial vital signs are BP 194/56 and P 46, the EtCO₂ is 54 mmHg, and the right pupil is 6 mm and sluggish to react. Positive pressure ventilations are increased to bring the EtCO₂ into the normal range. Ten minutes later, the EtCO₂ is 39 mmHg, the skin is warm and dry, the radial pulse is strong, the vital signs are BP 146/86 and P 84, and the right pupil is now 3 mm and brisk, equal to the left. What do these reassessment findings indicate?

Show the answer and rationale

Correct answer · Intracranial pressure is trending downward in response to the ventilation change

The EtCO₂ normalizing from 54 to 39 mmHg after ventilation was increased, together with the previously sluggish and dilated pupil becoming brisk and equal, indicates that intracranial pressure is decreasing in response to treatment. The blood pressure and pulse changes fit this same improving trend, since the skin and pulse quality remain normal rather than showing signs of shock.

Why the others are wrong

The patient is developing decompensated shock from occult blood loss: The blood pressure did fall, but the skin is warm and dry and the radial pulse is strong, which are not signs of decompensated shock. A falling blood pressure alongside a heart rate returning toward normal fits the same improving picture as the EtCO₂ and pupil, not hemorrhage.

The endotracheal tube has slipped out of the trachea into the esophagus: Waveform capnography and equal bilateral breath sounds were already confirmed. If the tube had slipped into the esophagus, the EtCO₂ would not read a normal, well-formed value; it would fall toward zero or become erratic, not normalize.

Cerebral perfusion pressure has fallen to a critically low level: A critically low cerebral perfusion pressure would worsen brain perfusion and would be expected to make the pupil finding and level of consciousness worse, not better, over this same 10 minutes.

Question 2 of 10

A 12-year-old baseball player collapsed immediately after being struck in the center of the chest by a pitched ball and is pulseless and apneic. The monitor shows ventricular fibrillation. What is the immediate treatment?

Show the answer and rationale

Correct answer · Immediate defibrillation

Commotio cordis is an arrest that follows a blunt blow to the precordium, timed to the vulnerable electrical phase of the heart, in a structurally normal heart. The rhythm is ventricular fibrillation, and you treat it like any other ventricular fibrillation arrest, which means defibrillating immediately. The heart underneath is healthy, so the outcome depends almost entirely on how fast that shock arrives.

Why the others are wrong

Two minutes of compressions before any shock: A period of compressions before the shock belongs to an unwitnessed arrest of unknown duration. This collapse was witnessed and the rhythm is already on the monitor, so the shock goes now.

Rapid transport with compressions only: Moving a patient in ventricular fibrillation away from a defibrillator that is already attached delays the one intervention that reverses this rhythm.

Needle decompression of the left chest: A blunt blow to the sternum can cause a pneumothorax, and that is not what stopped this heart. The monitor already shows the rhythm that did.

Question 3 of 10

A 58-year-old patient was struck in the chest by a steering wheel during a motor vehicle collision. There is no bruising or discoloration visible on the chest wall, and the paramedic is assessing for a blunt cardiac injury. Which finding is most consistent with that diagnosis?

Show the answer and rationale

Correct answer · Retrosternal chest pain with a new-onset dysrhythmia

Blunt cardiac injury (myocardial contusion) classically produces retrosternal pain that can mimic an infarct, along with dysrhythmias and ECG changes, and it frequently occurs without any external chest wall discoloration, so a clean-looking chest wall should not be reassuring. The combination of chest pain and a new dysrhythmia after a sternal or steering-wheel impact is exactly the pattern that should prompt the paramedic to anticipate deterioration in this patient.

Why the others are wrong

A single area of point tenderness over one rib with a normal 12-lead: Point tenderness over a single rib with a normal 12-lead describes an isolated rib fracture rather than a cardiac injury: blunt cardiac injury is marked by dysrhythmias and ECG changes, not a normal tracing.

Diffuse abdominal tenderness with a rigid abdomen: points toward an abdominal organ injury from the same mechanism, not a cardiac one: blunt cardiac injury presents with chest pain and dysrhythmias, not abdominal findings.

A widened pulse pressure with warm, flushed skin: describes a distributive shock pattern, not the dysrhythmias and retrosternal pain that mark a blunt cardiac injury.

Question 4 of 10

A 63-year-old patient was in a high-speed collision. The patient is confused, the pelvis is unstable on gentle palpation, and the skin is cool and pale. The vital signs are BP 86/54, P 124, and R 28. A community hospital without surgical capability is 6 minutes away, and a Level I trauma center is 22 minutes away. Where should the paramedic transport this patient?

Show the answer and rationale

Correct answer · The trauma center, because of physiologic instability

Field trauma triage is tiered, and the physiologic criteria sit at the very top of that tier list, above mechanism, above anatomy, and above travel time. A systolic of 86 with confusion and cool pale skin puts this patient squarely in that top tier, and those are the patients whose survival depends on rapid surgical hemorrhage control, which an unstable pelvis in a 63-year-old is very likely to need. The destination is the highest level of trauma care reachable within a reasonable interval, not the nearest emergency department. The 16 additional minutes buy a resource the closer hospital does not have at any hour: an operating room and a trauma surgeon. Anything short of that just moves the patient without moving them closer to the intervention that stops the bleeding.

Why the others are wrong

The community hospital, because it is closest: The nearest facility is the right destination when the problem is one that facility can actually fix, or when the patient cannot survive the longer ride, such as an unmanageable airway or an arrest. This patient has a patent airway, is breathing at 28, and can tolerate 22 minutes with resuscitation running. Choosing proximity here trades a few minutes of drive time for the definitive care that stops the bleeding, which is the wrong trade.

The trauma center, only if air transport is available: Making the trauma center conditional on air transport inverts the decision. Air is a tool for shortening a long transport or reaching a scene ground units cannot, and with the trauma center 22 minutes out by ground, setting up a landing zone would usually cost more time than it saves. Destination is decided by the patient's physiology, and mode of travel is a separate question that never changes which hospital is correct.

The community hospital, to stabilize before transfer: Stopping at a non-surgical hospital to stabilize before transfer is the most seductive wrong answer here, because caution sounds like good judgment. A patient bleeding from an unstable pelvis cannot be stabilized without surgical control, so the stop adds a second assessment, a second packaging, and a second transport to the clock while the bleeding continues. The genuine exception is the patient who cannot survive the longer trip at all, and this one can.

Question 5 of 10

A 30-year-old patient fell 20 feet from a roof and reports upper abdominal discomfort. The patient is alert and anxious, and the skin is cool and pale. Breath sounds are clear bilaterally and the neck veins are flat. The vital signs are BP 118/96, P 116, and R 24. What is most likely causing the vital signs?

Show the answer and rationale

Correct answer · Compensatory vasoconstriction from blood loss

The number that matters here is the pulse pressure, not the systolic. A blood pressure of 118/96 leaves a pulse pressure of 22, which is narrow, and it is narrow because catecholamine-driven arteriolar constriction has raised systemic vascular resistance and pushed the diastolic up while a falling stroke volume holds the systolic down. Cool pale skin, a pulse of 116, and a respiratory rate of 24 are the same compensation seen from other angles, all of it the sympathetic nervous system defending perfusion. This is compensated hemorrhagic shock after a 20-foot fall with upper abdominal pain, where the likely source is the spleen or the liver. A candidate who reads only the systolic calls this blood pressure normal and misses it, because a falling systolic is a late finding.

Why the others are wrong

Increased cardiac output from pain and anxiety: Pain and anxiety do raise heart rate and respiratory rate, and this patient is described as anxious, so part of the picture genuinely fits. What distress alone does not do is narrow the pulse pressure while turning the skin cool and pale; a stress response typically leaves the skin warm and the pulse pressure intact or wide. Assigning these findings to nerves is the specific error that lets an intra-abdominal bleed leave the scene undiagnosed.

Increased intrathoracic pressure from a pneumothorax: Rising intrathoracic pressure from a pneumothorax would explain tachycardia and tachypnea and belongs in any fall-from-height differential. Two findings shut it down: breath sounds are clear bilaterally and the neck veins are flat. Tension physiology obstructs venous return and distends those veins, so flat veins point toward an emptying circulation rather than an obstructed one, which is what the key describes.

Sympathetic blockade from a spinal cord injury: produces the mirror image of this patient, with warm dry flushed skin below the injury, a normal or slow heart rate because the cardiac accelerator fibers are cut off, and a wide pulse pressure from lost vascular tone. Here the skin is cool and pale, the pulse is 116, and the pulse pressure is narrow. Every finding runs in the opposite direction, which is what makes neurogenic and hemorrhagic shock such a clean pair to learn against each other.

Question 6 of 10

A 24-year-old patient was the restrained driver in a low-speed rear-end motor vehicle collision. The patient is alert and oriented, denies neck or back pain, has no midline tenderness on palpation, has normal strength and sensation in all extremities, has no distracting injury, and shows no signs of intoxication. The vital signs are BP 124/78, P 82, and R 16. Which action regarding spinal care is most appropriate?

Show the answer and rationale

Correct answer · No spinal motion restriction is indicated

Spinal motion restriction is decided by assessment findings rather than by mechanism alone, which is the shift away from the old collar-and-board-for-everyone approach and the whole point of this item. The standard field criteria ask two things: is the exam reliable, and is it negative. This patient clears every box, being alert and oriented, sober, free of distracting injury, without neck or back pain, without midline tenderness on palpation, and with normal strength and sensation in all extremities. When all of those are satisfied, the examination is considered reliable enough to exclude an unstable spinal injury, and restriction is not indicated. That is not merely permission to skip a step, because restriction carries real costs including pressure injury, pain, impaired ventilation, aspiration risk, and delayed transport, so applying it to a patient who does not need it is a harm rather than a neutral precaution.

Why the others are wrong

Secure the patient to a long backboard: A long backboard is now an extrication and movement device rather than a treatment, reserved for moving a patient who cannot be moved another way, and even patients who do require motion restriction are generally secured to the stretcher instead. Applying it here layers the highest-cost option onto a patient whose examination is entirely negative. The key recognizes that a reliable negative exam ends the question, while this treats a mechanism the patient's own findings have already cleared.

Restrict motion only during extrication: Restricting motion only during extrication is a real practice, and limiting movement while you move someone is reasonable when the examination is unreliable or positive. This patient meets every criterion for a reliable negative exam and can self-extricate, so there is nothing to restrict, and a partial measure still communicates that an injury is suspected when the assessment says it is not. The key acts on the completed assessment rather than splitting the difference.

Apply a cervical collar for the mechanism: Applying a collar for the mechanism is the reflex this item is written against, and a low-speed rear-end collision is exactly where collars used to go on automatically. Mechanism raises suspicion but does not override a reliable negative examination, and a collar carries its own costs, including airway restriction, raised intracranial pressure, and discomfort. The key follows the assessment-based criteria that are the current standard, and mechanism alone does not satisfy them.

Question 7 of 10

A 39-year-old patient was ejected from a snowmobile and has injuries to both legs. The ambient temperature is 18°F and the patient's clothing is wet. The patient is shivering and alert and reports pain in both legs. The skin is cool. The vital signs are BP 104/68, P 118, and R 22. Which action is most appropriate?

Show the answer and rationale

Correct answer · Remove the wet clothing and cover the patient

Hypothermia is not merely a comfort problem in a trauma patient. Cold impairs the enzymatic reactions that clotting depends on and reduces platelet function, so a hypothermic bleeding patient clots poorly no matter how good the bleeding control is, which is why hypothermia sits alongside acidosis and coagulopathy in the lethal triad. Wet clothing accelerates heat loss through conduction and evaporation and keeps working the entire way to the hospital, so removing it and covering the patient with dry insulation addresses the largest ongoing source of loss. Warming the patient compartment and using warmed intravenous fluids extends the same principle.

Why the others are wrong

Apply chemical heat packs directly to the skin: Chemical heat packs have a real role in active rewarming, applied over a barrier to the trunk, the axillae, and the groin as part of a warming plan. Placed directly against the skin of a cold, poorly perfused patient they burn, because vasoconstricted skin cannot carry the heat away and a shivering, distracted patient may not report the injury as it develops. They also add a small amount of heat while wet clothing keeps removing a much larger amount, so the key attacks the source of the loss and this option does not.

Leave the clothing in place during transport: Leaving the clothing in place follows the instinct that undressing someone in 18-degree weather has to make things worse, and there is a genuine principle about not exposing a trauma patient longer than necessary. Wet fabric held against skin conducts heat away many times faster than air does, and evaporation from it keeps pulling heat for the entire transport. A brief exposure to cut the clothing away, followed immediately by dry insulation, is a clear net gain measured over the whole trip, which is exactly what the key does.

Massage the extremities to restore warmth: Massaging cold extremities is the folk version of rewarming and is specifically avoided. Rubbing cold-injured tissue causes mechanical damage to cells that are already compromised, and moving cold peripheral blood back toward the core can push the core temperature down further. It also leaves the wet clothing exactly where it is, so it corrects neither the ongoing heat loss nor the clotting problem that makes hypothermia matter in a bleeding trauma patient.

Question 8 of 10

A 41-year-old patient was pinned at chest level under a rolled vehicle for several minutes before bystanders lifted it. The face and neck are deeply blue and swollen with pinpoint red spots across the face, and the whites of the eyes are bright red. The skin below the collarbones is normal in color. Breath sounds are equal, the chest wall is stable, and the trachea is midline. The vital signs are BP 108/72, P 112, and R 24, with SpO₂ 95% on high-concentration oxygen. What is most likely causing the findings?

Show the answer and rationale

Correct answer · Traumatic asphyxia

Sustained crushing pressure on the chest squeezes blood backward out of the right side of the heart into the great veins of the head and neck, and because that venous system has no valves to stop retrograde flow, the pressure is transmitted all the way out to the capillaries, which rupture. That produces the whole triad in this question: deep blue-purple discoloration of the face and neck, pinpoint petechiae across the face, and bright red subconjunctival hemorrhage. The finding that clinches it is the sharp cutoff at the collarbones, because the compressing force was applied below that line and the skin below it looks normal. The discoloration itself is not the emergency; the chest and lung injury underneath and the hypoxia during the compression are. Care is oxygenation, a careful search for the injuries beneath, and transport to a trauma center.

Why the others are wrong

Cardiac tamponade: deserves consideration in any crushed chest, and it shares part of the picture, since it distends neck veins and produces a shocky patient. Its signature is hypotension with muffled heart tones and a heart that cannot fill, whereas this patient is at 108/72 with equal breath sounds and a stable chest wall. More decisively, tamponade does not produce a color change that stops in a clean horizontal line at the collarbones, and that cutoff is a compression pattern rather than a cardiac one.

Tension pneumothorax: also engorges the neck veins and would explain a pulse of 112, so it is a defensible instinct after a crush injury. The exam rules it out directly: breath sounds are equal, the trachea is midline, and the SpO2 is 95%. Air trapped in a pleural space also does not stain a face purple with petechiae or turn the sclerae red, and the key is the only option that accounts for those color findings.

Facial fractures with swelling: would explain deformity, swelling, and even periorbital bruising after a direct blow to the face. The mechanism here is a chest-level crush under a vehicle, not a facial impact, and fractures do not produce symmetric petechiae across the entire face with bilateral red sclerae and a deeply blue neck. Above all, a facial injury cannot explain why the discoloration ends abruptly at the collarbones with normal skin below.

Question 9 of 10

A 26-year-old patient has a single stab wound at the left sixth intercostal space in the anterior axillary line. The patient is alert, breath sounds are equal, and the abdomen is soft and nontender. The vital signs are BP 124/78, P 98, and R 18, with SpO₂ 98% on room air. Which additional injury should the paramedic most strongly suspect?

Show the answer and rationale

Correct answer · Diaphragm and abdominal organs

The diaphragm moves, and that is the whole point of this question. At the end of a full exhalation its dome rises to about the fourth intercostal space, roughly the nipple line, so the band between the nipple line and the costal margin is thoracic during inhalation and abdominal during exhalation. A wound at the sixth intercostal space sits squarely in that thoracoabdominal zone and has to be treated as both a chest wound and an abdominal wound until a surgeon proves otherwise. On the left, that trajectory overlies the diaphragm, the spleen, and the stomach. The soft nontender abdomen is reassuring about this minute and not about the injury, because bleeding into the abdomen and a torn diaphragm can both stay silent for a long time.

Why the others are wrong

Chest wall and intercostal vessels only: Chest wall and intercostal vessel injury is what a shallow or tangential wound produces, and intercostal artery bleeding is a real entity worth knowing. Calling this injury wall-only requires knowing the depth of the track, which the field never does. At the sixth intercostal space the diaphragm may sit directly under the blade at end-exhalation, so limiting suspicion to the wall underestimates the trajectory, while the key keeps both cavities in play.

Pericardium and heart: the correct suspicion for a wound in the cardiac box, the region bounded roughly by the clavicles, the nipples, and the costal margin over the sternum and medial chest. This wound is in the anterior axillary line, well lateral to that box, and the patient is alert at 124/78 with no tamponade findings. A left lateral sixth-space track heads toward the diaphragm and spleen rather than the pericardium.

Trachea and major bronchi: injured by penetrating wounds of the neck or the upper mediastinum, and they announce themselves loudly with subcutaneous emphysema, a persistent air leak, hemoptysis, or respiratory distress. This patient breathes at 18 with equal breath sounds and a room-air SpO2 of 98%. The anatomy alone rules it out, since a wound at the sixth intercostal space in the anterior axillary line is nowhere near those structures.

Question 10 of 10

An 81-year-old patient was the restrained driver in a low-speed motor vehicle collision and is still seated in the vehicle. The patient is alert and oriented, reports discomfort across the chest where the seat belt crossed, and has no obvious deformity or external bleeding. Medications include metoprolol and lisinopril. The vital signs are BP 104/68, P 78, and R 18, with SpO₂ 96% on room air. How should the paramedic interpret this blood pressure?

Show the answer and rationale

Correct answer · As a possible sign of shock at this age

A systolic pressure below 90 is the familiar threshold for hypotension in an adult, and it is the wrong threshold in an older patient. Arterial stiffening and long-standing hypertension raise the pressure an older adult needs in order to perfuse the brain, kidneys, and heart, so a systolic reading that would be unremarkable at 30 can represent meaningful hypoperfusion at 81. National field triage guidance reflects this directly by treating a systolic pressure under 110 in a patient 65 or older as a high-risk physiologic finding rather than a normal value. The pulse offers no reassurance either, because metoprolol blunts the tachycardia that would otherwise announce blood loss, so the pressure has to be read on its own terms.

Why the others are wrong

As normal for a patient of this age: A systolic of 104 would be unremarkable in a young adult, and that is exactly the trap. An older adult with stiffened vessels and a chronically higher baseline is often already hypoperfusing at a number that looks reassuring on the monitor, and reading it as normal is the most common way occult geriatric hemorrhage gets missed.

As an effect of the metoprolol: Metoprolol and lisinopril do lower blood pressure, which makes it tempting to subtract their effect and call the reading explained. Field triage does not permit that subtraction: the threshold is applied to the pressure actually measured, because a medication that lowers the baseline also removes the reserve the patient would need during blood loss.

As elevated from the pain of the injury: Pain raises blood pressure through sympathetic stimulation rather than lowering it, so pain cannot explain a reading at the low end of the range. Nothing in this presentation suggests the pressure is artificially high.

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