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9 free Paramedic practice questions: Cardiogenic Shock and Decompensated Heart Failure

These are real questions from the same bank the app draws from. Each one is written to the NREMT Paramedic content specifications and kept inside the Paramedic scope of practice. Pick an answer and you get the full rationale, including why the other three options are wrong.

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Question 1 of 9

A 71-year-old patient with acute pulmonary edema has been on CPAP for 12 minutes. The patient's breathing has become easier, and the SpO₂ has risen from 84% to 96%. The vital signs, initially BP 178/96, are now BP 84/52, and the patient reports feeling lightheaded. What does this change in blood pressure most likely represent?

Show the answer and rationale

Correct answer · Reduced venous return from raised intrathoracic pressure

This blood pressure drop is from the CPAP. CPAP raises the pressure inside the chest. That higher pressure pushes back on the blood returning to the heart through the veins. Less blood coming back to the heart means less blood for the heart to pump out. The blood pressure has fallen from 178/96 to 84/52, and the patient feels lightheaded. Watch the blood pressure closely on any patient you put on CPAP.

Why the others are wrong

An allergic reaction to the CPAP mask material: An allergic reaction to the mask would give you hives, new wheezing, or swelling of the face or airway. This question gives you none of those.

Resolution of the underlying pulmonary edema: The easier breathing and the SpO₂ of 96% can look like the pulmonary edema has resolved. Pulmonary edema does not resolve within minutes. The timing of the blood pressure drop lines up with a known effect of CPAP instead.

Peak effect of a home antihypertensive medication taken earlier: A home blood pressure medication can lower the pressure. The question never says the patient took one. The drop started on CPAP, and CPAP explains the drop much better.

Question 2 of 9

Which of the following best explains why CPAP improves oxygenation in a patient with acute cardiogenic pulmonary edema?

Show the answer and rationale

Correct answer · Positive pressure that reopens collapsed alveoli and clears alveolar fluid

CPAP improves oxygenation by reopening alveoli that are collapsed and full of fluid. In acute cardiogenic pulmonary edema, the left ventricle is failing. Fluid backs up from the left ventricle into the lungs and floods the alveoli. Blood passes those flooded alveoli and never picks up oxygen. CPAP holds positive pressure in the lungs while the patient breathes in and while the patient breathes out. The pressure opens the collapsed alveoli back up. The pressure also pushes fluid out of the alveoli and back into the pulmonary capillaries. Air and blood meet again in those alveoli, and oxygenation improves. That's why CPAP goes on early in flash pulmonary edema, before intubation is considered.

Why the others are wrong

Increased venous return that restores adequate cardiac preload: CPAP does change blood flow, but in the opposite direction from this option. Raising the pressure in the chest decreases venous return and lowers preload. Lower preload actually helps a fluid-overloaded left ventricle. The question asks about oxygenation, and the better oxygenation comes from the reopened alveoli.

Relaxation of coronary artery smooth muscle that increases myocardial blood flow: Relaxing coronary artery smooth muscle describes nitroglycerin. Nitroglycerin dilates the veins and coronary arteries and lowers preload and afterload. CPAP has no direct effect on the coronary arteries.

Increased systemic vascular resistance that raises alveolar perfusion pressure: CPAP does not raise systemic vascular resistance. Raising systemic vascular resistance would increase the afterload on a failing ventricle. Higher afterload makes pulmonary edema worse, not better.

Question 3 of 9

A 44-year-old patient struck in the chest by a steering wheel is hypotensive with distended neck veins and muffled heart tones. Breath sounds are clear and equal in all fields and the trachea is midline. The vital signs are BP 84/68, P 132, R 26, and SpO₂ 94% on room air. Which finding most clearly separates this from a tension pneumothorax?

Show the answer and rationale

Correct answer · The clear and equal breath sounds with a midline trachea

The clear and equal breath sounds with a midline trachea separate this from a tension pneumothorax. This patient has cardiac tamponade. Tamponade and a tension pneumothorax both squeeze the heart from the outside. Both cause hypotension and distended neck veins, so the neck veins cannot tell them apart. The breath sounds and the trachea can. A tension pneumothorax collapses one lung and pushes the chest structures away from it. The breath sounds go away on that side, and the trachea can shift. This patient has clear, equal breath sounds and a midline trachea, and that leaves tamponade. Transport rapidly. The fix for tamponade is not on the ambulance.

Why the others are wrong

The narrow gap between the systolic and diastolic pressures: A narrow pulse pressure does show up in tamponade. A narrow pulse pressure also shows up in many other low output states, including a tension pneumothorax. The narrow gap supports the picture, but it does not separate the two.

The heart rate of 132 alongside a systolic pressure of 84: A heart rate of 132 with a systolic pressure of 84 is the body's response to shock. Every cause of obstructive shock produces that response.

The distended neck veins in a hypotensive patient: Distended neck veins are the finding tamponade and a tension pneumothorax share. Both raise the pressure the heart has to fill against, and that backs blood up into the neck veins.

Question 4 of 9

A 63-year-old patient develops sudden difficulty breathing two days after a knee replacement. The patient is anxious and pale, the neck veins are distended, and the lungs are clear in every field. The vital signs are BP 78/54, P 132, R 32, and SpO₂ 86% on room air. Which finding pair argues for obstructive shock rather than cardiogenic shock?

Show the answer and rationale

Correct answer · The clear lung fields alongside the distended neck veins

This patient most likely has a massive pulmonary embolism, which causes obstructive shock. The neck veins are distended, and the lungs are clear in every field. Cardiogenic shock and obstructive shock both fill the neck veins. In both, blood backs up behind a heart that cannot push it forward. The lungs are what separate the two. When the left ventricle fails, blood backs up into the lungs and floods the alveoli, so you hear crackles. A pulmonary embolism blocks the blood before it reaches the lungs. The neck veins fill, and the alveoli stay dry. This patient is also two days out from a knee replacement. Full neck veins with clear lungs after surgery points you toward obstructive shock and away from treating pump failure. One exception is a right ventricular infarct. A right ventricular infarct also leaves the lungs clear, so the rest of the assessment and the 12-lead still matter.

Why the others are wrong

The sudden onset of difficulty breathing at rest: Sudden onset should make you think about an embolism. Acute pulmonary edema can also come on over minutes in a patient who was fine at dinner. How fast the breathing trouble started narrows your thinking, but it does not decide the shock type.

The oxygen saturation of 86% on room air: An SpO₂ of 86% fits a massive embolism, and it fits pulmonary edema too. The saturation tells you this patient needs oxygen now. The saturation does not tell you whether the problem is before the lungs, like an embolism, or after them, like a failing left ventricle.

The heart rate above 130 with a systolic in the 70s: A heart rate above 130 and a systolic in the 70s tell you this patient is in shock. Every kind of shock on the list can give you those numbers. That's why those numbers cannot tell you which kind this is.

Question 5 of 9

A 68-year-old patient reports that shoes stopped fitting over the past two weeks. The lungs are clear in every field, both ankles pit when pressed, the neck veins are distended while the patient sits upright, and the right upper abdomen is tender. The vital signs are BP 128/78, P 92, R 20, and SpO₂ 95% on room air. Which pattern does this exam describe?

Show the answer and rationale

Correct answer · Right-sided failure backing up into the body

This patient has right-sided heart failure. The shoes stopped fitting over the past two weeks, and both ankles pit when pressed. The neck veins are distended even with the patient sitting upright. The right upper abdomen is tender, and the lungs are clear in every field. The right ventricle pumps blood to the lungs. When the right ventricle fails, blood backs up into the body instead. That backup causes pitting edema in the ankles and legs and distended neck veins. The liver swells too, which makes the right upper abdomen tender. The lungs stay clear because the backup is behind the right side of the heart.

Why the others are wrong

An early pneumonia settling into both bases: Pneumonia can settle into the lung bases. Pneumonia gives you a fever, a productive cough, and abnormal sounds over the affected part of the lung. This patient has clear lungs and nothing that points to infection.

Volume depletion from two weeks of poor intake: Two weeks of eating and drinking less can leave an older patient dry. A dry patient has flat neck veins because there is not enough volume to fill them. This patient's neck veins are distended and the ankles pit. The fluid is there, and it is backed up into the body.

Left-sided failure backing fluid into the lungs: Left-sided failure is the right organ but the wrong side. When the left ventricle fails, fluid backs up into the lungs and you hear crackles. This patient's lungs are clear in every field.

Question 6 of 9

A 64-year-old patient has crushing chest pressure that started 40 minutes ago. The lungs are clear in every field and the neck veins are distended. The 12-lead ECG shows an inferior wall myocardial infarction. The vital signs are BP 82/58, P 56, R 20, and SpO₂ 96% on room air. Which treatment fits this patient's hypotension?

Show the answer and rationale

Correct answer · Small boluses of isotonic fluid titrated to response

This patient most likely has a right ventricular infarction. Small fluid boluses titrated to response are the right treatment for the hypotension. The 12-lead shows an inferior wall MI, the lungs are clear, the neck veins are distended, and the pressure is 82/58. An inferior MI often involves the right ventricle. Clear lungs with distended neck veins in a patient with chest pressure is the pattern that should make you think of the right ventricle. The right ventricle is preload dependent. A preload dependent ventricle needs volume coming back from the body to fill and push blood forward into the lungs. That's why this is the one cardiogenic presentation where fluid is the right answer. Give a small fluid bolus, then recheck the pressure and the lungs before you give more. Do not give nitroglycerin or anything else that lowers preload. Dropping the preload can crash this patient's pressure hard.

Why the others are wrong

A single large bolus of isotonic fluid run wide open: This patient does need volume, so fluid is the right direction. Running one large bolus wide open takes away the chance to recheck after each amount. The left ventricle can still flood the lungs if you give too much.

Sublingual nitroglycerin to open the vessels: Nitroglycerin opens the vessels and is a normal part of treating chest pain. Nitroglycerin drops preload, and preload is the one thing this right ventricle cannot afford to lose. Giving nitroglycerin here can turn a soft pressure into a crash.

Supine positioning with the legs raised and nothing else: Raising the legs does move a little blood toward the core, and raising the legs does no harm. Positioning alone is not enough for a pressure of 82/58, and positioning is not the treatment this pattern calls for.

Question 7 of 9

An 81-year-old patient is fighting for air at the top of a flight of stairs. There are crackles through both lung fields, distended neck veins, and pink frothy sputum at the lips. The patient is alert and following commands. The vital signs are BP 98/70, P 122, R 34, and SpO₂ 84% on room air. Which intervention will have the greatest impact?

Show the answer and rationale

Correct answer · Apply CPAP and keep the patient upright

This patient is in acute pulmonary edema, and CPAP is going to help the most. There are crackles in both lungs, distended neck veins, and pink frothy sputum at the lips. The SpO₂ is 84% and the respirations are 34. The alveoli are filling with fluid, so oxygen cannot get across into the blood. CPAP pushes pressure into the lungs and opens the collapsed alveoli back up. The pressure also pushes fluid back out of the alveoli. CPAP lowers both preload and afterload at the same time. A pressure of 98 does not mean this patient needs fluid. This patient already has too much fluid, and the fluid is in the lungs. The patient is alert, following commands, and breathing without help. That's the patient CPAP is made for. Keep the patient sitting upright. Never lay a patient in acute pulmonary edema flat.

Why the others are wrong

Assist breathing with a BVM at 20 breaths per minute: A BVM is for a patient who can no longer breathe well enough without help. This patient is alert, following commands, and pulling breaths on their own. The ability to do the work of breathing has not been lost. Ventilating with a BVM is where you go if that changes.

Lay the patient supine and run a 500 mL fluid bolus: Laying the patient flat and running fluid is the reflex for most other kinds of shock. A systolic of 98 is low, but this patient's lungs are already flooded. A 500 mL bolus adds more fluid to them. Sitting upright lets gravity keep some of the fluid out of the upper lungs, and laying the patient flat takes that away.

Place an NRB at 15 liters per minute and transport: An NRB at 15 liters per minute is a reasonable first move while you set up CPAP. An NRB only gives a richer oxygen mix. The alveoli are still full of fluid, so the oxygen still cannot get across. Pressure is what moves the fluid out, and an NRB gives no pressure.

Question 8 of 9

A 71-year-old patient with cardiogenic pulmonary edema has been on CPAP for fifteen minutes. The set on scene read BP 138/86, P 104, R 32, and SpO₂ 88%, with warm hands. The set now reads BP 136/92, P 128, R 30, and SpO₂ 91%, with cool fingertips and a slower capillary refill. What is the most useful reading of this trend?

Show the answer and rationale

Correct answer · Perfusion is falling while the pressure still holds

This patient's perfusion is getting worse while the blood pressure holds. Compare the two sets of vital signs. The systolic went from 138 to 136, which is barely a change. The pulse went from 104 to 128. The hands were warm, and now the fingertips are cool and the capillary refill is slower. A rising pulse with cooling skin and a steady pressure means the body is working harder to hold that pressure up. The saturation went from 88% to 91%, so the CPAP is helping the lungs. Meanwhile the circulation is getting worse. When the pressure finally falls, you are finding out late. Act on the trend now.

Why the others are wrong

The rising pulse is anxiety from the mask: A CPAP mask can make a patient anxious, and anxiety raises the pulse. Anxiety does not cool the fingertips or slow the capillary refill. Those two findings make this a perfusion problem.

The patient is responding well to the treatment: The saturation did improve, but the pulse and the skin both got worse. A faster pulse with cooler skin means the patient is working harder to hold the same pressure, and that is not a good response.

The CPAP is no longer reaching the alveoli: CPAP that stops reaching the alveoli would drop the saturation. This saturation went up from 88% to 91%. The lungs are the part of this patient that improved.

Question 9 of 9

A 72-year-old patient has hypotension, tachycardia, and cool mottled skin. Crackles are audible bilaterally, and the jugular veins are distended. The paramedic determines that volume status is not in question. Which of the following is the most appropriate treatment?

Show the answer and rationale

Correct answer · Begin a vasoactive medication infusion per protocol

This patient is in cardiogenic shock. The patient has hypotension, tachycardia, cool and mottled skin, crackles in both lungs, and distended jugular veins. The question tells you volume status is not the problem. The left ventricle cannot pump blood forward. Blood backs up into the lungs, which gives you the crackles. Pressure also backs up into the veins, which gives you the JVD. The blood vessels in the skin tighten, which gives you the cool, mottled skin. Fluid would only make the congestion worse. Start a vasoactive infusion per protocol. An inotrope or a pressor supports how hard the heart squeezes and keeps up the perfusion pressure without adding volume.

Why the others are wrong

Administer a large-volume normal saline bolus: A large fluid bolus is the standard fix for hypovolemic shock, where the hypotension and tachycardia come from too little volume. This patient has bilateral crackles and JVD, and volume status is not in question. The ventricle is failing, not empty. A large bolus floods lungs that are already backing up.

Withhold treatment until a 12-lead ECG is obtained: A 12-lead ECG helps find an infarct or a dysrhythmia behind the pump failure. This patient already has hypotension and cool, mottled skin from poor perfusion. Holding treatment for a test delays the vasoactive support that needs to start now.

Administer a high-dose diuretic to reduce total body fluid: A diuretic pulls fluid off a patient with pulmonary congestion. This patient is already hypotensive. Lowering the blood volume further drops the perfusion pressure and makes the shock worse. The diuretic does nothing for the failing pump that is causing the shock.

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