10 free Paramedic practice questions: Cardiogenic Shock and Decompensated Heart Failure
These are real questions from the same bank the app draws from. Each one is written to the NREMT Paramedic content specifications and kept inside the Paramedic scope of practice. Pick an answer and you get the full rationale, including why the other three options are wrong.
Work through all 10, then move on to the next topic. When you want the full picture, the free Paramedic diagnostic covers every topic in one sitting. No account needed for any of it.
Question 1 of 10
A 71-year-old patient with acute pulmonary edema has been on CPAP for 12 minutes. The patient's breathing has become easier, and the SpO₂ has risen from 84% to 96%. The vital signs, initially BP 178/96, are now BP 84/52, and the patient reports feeling lightheaded. What does this change in blood pressure most likely represent?
Show the answer and rationale
Correct answer · Reduced venous return from raised intrathoracic pressure
High pressure in the chest from CPAP raises intrathoracic pressure, which resists venous blood returning to the heart and can cause a sudden drop in blood pressure, a recognized effect of CPAP that requires close blood pressure monitoring during its use.
Why the others are wrong
An allergic reaction to the CPAP mask material: An allergic reaction fits the fact that a device-related complication has occurred, but the question gives no hives, wheezing beyond the existing pulmonary edema, or facial or airway swelling to support anaphylaxis.
Resolution of the underlying pulmonary edema: Improved breathing sounds like the underlying heart failure has resolved, but pulmonary edema does not resolve within minutes, and the timing of the blood pressure drop matches a known effect of CPAP rather than resolution of disease.
Peak effect of a home antihypertensive medication taken earlier: A home medication is an easy thing to blame the change on, but the question gives no history of an antihypertensive medication, and the timing tied directly to CPAP use is a far stronger explanation.
Question 2 of 10
Which of the following best explains why CPAP improves oxygenation in a patient with acute cardiogenic pulmonary edema?
Show the answer and rationale
Correct answer · Positive pressure that reopens collapsed alveoli and clears alveolar fluid
Acute cardiogenic pulmonary edema floods and collapses alveoli with fluid backed up from the failing left ventricle, creating shunt physiology where blood passes alveoli that never get ventilated. CPAP holds positive pressure across both inspiration and expiration, which increases functional residual capacity, recruits those collapsed and fluid-filled alveoli, and pushes interstitial and alveolar fluid back into the pulmonary capillaries, restoring ventilation-perfusion matching. This is why CPAP is started early in flash pulmonary edema, before intubation is considered: it corrects oxygenation at the alveolar level itself, not through any change in the heart or vessels.
Why the others are wrong
Increased venous return that restores adequate cardiac preload: CPAP does affect hemodynamics, but in the opposite direction this option describes: raising intrathoracic pressure decreases venous return and lowers preload, which is actually beneficial in a fluid-overloaded left ventricle. That drop in preload helps cardiac performance, but the oxygenation improvement you're asked about comes from alveolar recruitment, not from restored venous return.
Relaxation of coronary artery smooth muscle that increases myocardial blood flow: This describes nitroglycerin, which relaxes vascular smooth muscle to dilate veins and coronary arteries and lower preload and afterload; nothing in the question points to a nitrate, and CPAP has no direct action on coronary smooth muscle.
Increased systemic vascular resistance that raises alveolar perfusion pressure: CPAP does not raise systemic vascular resistance, and raising SVR would increase afterload on a failing ventricle and worsen the pulmonary edema rather than improve alveolar perfusion pressure.
Question 3 of 10
A 44-year-old patient struck in the chest by a steering wheel is hypotensive with distended neck veins and muffled heart tones. Breath sounds are clear and equal in all fields and the trachea is midline. The vital signs are BP 84/68, P 132, R 26, and SpO₂ 94% on room air. Which finding most clearly separates this from a tension pneumothorax?
Show the answer and rationale
Correct answer · The clear and equal breath sounds with a midline trachea
Both conditions squeeze the heart from the outside, and both produce hypotension with distended neck veins, so the neck veins cannot sort them. The lungs can. A tension pneumothorax collapses one lung and pushes the structures away from it, so the breath sounds disappear on that side and the trachea can shift. Clear, equal breath sounds with a midline trachea leave tamponade standing. Transport rapidly, because the fix for this one is not on the ambulance.
Why the others are wrong
The narrow gap between the systolic and diastolic pressures: A narrowing pulse pressure shows up in tamponade, and it shows up in plenty of other low output states including a tension pneumothorax. It supports the picture without separating the two.
The heart rate of 132 alongside a systolic pressure of 84: A fast rate with a low pressure is the shock response itself. Every cause of obstructive shock produces it.
The distended neck veins in a hypotensive patient: Distended neck veins are the finding the two conditions share. Both raise the pressure the heart has to fill against, so both fill the neck veins.
Question 4 of 10
A 63-year-old patient develops sudden difficulty breathing two days after a knee replacement. The patient is anxious and pale, the neck veins are distended, and the lungs are clear in every field. The vital signs are BP 78/54, P 132, R 32, and SpO₂ 86% on room air. Which finding pair argues for obstructive shock rather than cardiogenic shock?
Show the answer and rationale
Correct answer · The clear lung fields alongside the distended neck veins
Cardiogenic shock and obstructive shock both fill the neck veins, because in both of them pressure backs up behind a heart that cannot push blood forward. What separates them is what you hear in the chest. When the left ventricle fails, blood stacks up one step behind it and floods the alveoli, so you get crackles. A massive pulmonary embolism blocks the circuit ahead of the lungs, so the neck veins fill while the alveoli stay dry. Keep one exception in your pocket, since a right ventricular infarct fails the right side and leaves the chest dry as well, which is why the rest of the picture and the 12-lead still decide it. Full neck veins with a clear chest in a patient two days out from surgery is the obstructive picture, and it steers you away from the pump failure pathway.
Why the others are wrong
The sudden onset of difficulty breathing at rest: Sudden onset should raise your suspicion for an embolism, but acute pulmonary edema can also build over minutes in a patient who was fine at dinner. Onset speed narrows your thinking without settling it.
The oxygen saturation of 86% on room air: Hypoxia is expected in a massive embolism and in pulmonary edema alike. The saturation tells you the patient needs oxygen now, not which side of the lung the problem sits on.
The heart rate above 130 with a systolic in the 70s: That rate and that pressure tell you the patient is in shock, which you already knew from looking at the patient. A finding that shows up in every category on the list cannot tell you which category you are in.
Question 5 of 10
A 68-year-old patient reports that shoes stopped fitting over the past two weeks. The lungs are clear in every field, both ankles pit when pressed, the neck veins are distended while the patient sits upright, and the right upper abdomen is tender. The vital signs are BP 128/78, P 92, R 20, and SpO₂ 95% on room air. Which pattern does this exam describe?
Show the answer and rationale
Correct answer · Right-sided failure backing up into the body
Follow the plumbing and the exam tells you the answer. The right ventricle pumps to the lungs, so when it fails, blood backs up into the body instead. That gives you clear lungs, pitting edema in the ankles and legs, distended neck veins, and a liver that swells enough to make the right upper abdomen tender. Every finding on this patient is on that list, and the clear chest is what rules the other side out. When the left ventricle is the one failing, blood backs up one step behind it into the lungs and you hear crackles instead.
Why the others are wrong
An early pneumonia settling into both bases: Two weeks of a changing body in a 68-year-old does invite an infectious explanation, and a tender right upper abdomen can read that way too. Pneumonia gives you a fever, a productive cough, and sounds in the affected lobe, and nothing here points to infection. Swollen ankles with full neck veins are a circulation finding rather than a lung finding.
Volume depletion from two weeks of poor intake: Shoes that stopped fitting is a two-week story, and two-week stories in older patients are often about eating and drinking less. A depleted patient has flat neck veins, because there is not enough volume to fill them. Distended neck veins and pitting edema say the volume is present and stuck in the wrong place.
Left-sided failure backing fluid into the lungs: You have the right organ here and the wrong side of it, which is the closest miss available. Left-sided failure puts the fluid in the alveoli, so you would hear crackles. This chest is clear in every field, which is the finding that sends you to the other side of the heart.
Question 6 of 10
A 64-year-old patient has crushing chest pressure that started 40 minutes ago. The lungs are clear in every field and the neck veins are distended. The 12-lead ECG shows an inferior wall myocardial infarction. The vital signs are BP 82/58, P 56, R 20, and SpO₂ 96% on room air. Which treatment fits this patient's hypotension?
Show the answer and rationale
Correct answer · Small boluses of isotonic fluid titrated to response
This is the one cardiogenic presentation where fluid is the right answer, and knowing why keeps you from making it worse. An inferior infarct often involves the right ventricle, and that ventricle is preload dependent. It needs volume arriving from the body to fill and push blood forward into the lungs. Clear lungs with distended neck veins and chest discomfort is the field pattern that should make you think of it. Treat the hypotension with fluid boluses titrated to response, giving a small amount and rechecking the pressure and the lungs each time. Nitroglycerin, or anything else that drops preload, can crash this patient hard, so the reflex you use on most chest pain is the exact thing to withhold here.
Why the others are wrong
A single large bolus of isotonic fluid run wide open: You are right that this patient needs volume, so the direction is correct. Running it wide open takes away the reassessment that titration is built around, and there is still a left ventricle that can flood if you overshoot.
Sublingual nitroglycerin to open the vessels: Nitroglycerin drops preload by design, which is the single thing this ventricle cannot afford. Giving it to a patient in this pattern is the classic way to turn a soft pressure into a profound crash.
Supine positioning with the legs raised and nothing else: Raising the legs is harmless and it does move a little volume centrally, but it is not enough on its own for a pressure in the 80s, and it is not the treatment the pattern calls for.
Question 7 of 10
An 81-year-old patient is fighting for air at the top of a flight of stairs. There are crackles through both lung fields, distended neck veins, and pink frothy sputum at the lips. The patient is alert and following commands. The vital signs are BP 98/70, P 122, R 34, and SpO₂ 84% on room air. Which intervention will have the greatest impact?
Show the answer and rationale
Correct answer · Apply CPAP and keep the patient upright
A pressure in the 90s makes people reach for fluid, so stop and ask where the fluid already is. This patient is drowning in it. The problem is too much fluid in the wrong place, which means a bolus makes this patient worse, not better. CPAP is the single highest impact intervention you have here, because it recruits collapsed alveoli, pushes fluid back out of them, and reduces both preload and afterload at the same time. The patient is alert, cooperative, and moving air without help, which is exactly who CPAP is built for. Keep the patient upright while you do it, because you never lay a patient in acute pulmonary edema flat.
Why the others are wrong
Assist breathing with a BVM at 20 breaths per minute: A saturation of 84% with a rate of 34 is a patient who looks like someone should be breathing for them, and that read is worth having. The patient is alert, cooperative, and generating breaths without help, so the ability to do the work has not been lost. Positive pressure ventilation is where you go when that changes, not while the patient can still drive it.
Lay the patient supine and run a 500 mL fluid bolus: A systolic of 98 is low enough to pull you toward fluid, and laying a hypotensive patient flat is the reflex from every other kind of shock. Both halves are wrong for this patient. Fluid adds to a chest that is already flooded, and laying the patient flat takes away the gravity that is currently keeping some of that fluid out of the upper lungs.
Place an NRB at 15 liters per minute and transport: High flow oxygen is a reasonable first move while you set up, but it only offers a richer gas to breathe across a membrane that is soaked. Pressure is what moves the fluid, and pressure is what is missing.
Question 8 of 10
An intubated 58-year-old patient with pulmonary edema is being transported with vital signs of BP 118/74, P 96, R 16 by ventilator, and SpO₂ 89%. Five minutes after the PEEP is raised from 5 to 12 to improve oxygenation, the blood pressure reads 78/50. Breath sounds are equal bilaterally, the trachea is midline, and the capnography waveform is unchanged. What is the appropriate action?
Show the answer and rationale
Correct answer · Reduce the PEEP back toward the prior setting
Every piece of this picture points back at the knob you just turned. Positive pressure in the chest squeezes the vessels that return blood to the right heart, and PEEP raises that pressure for the whole breath cycle rather than just part of it. More PEEP means less blood coming back, which means less blood going out, which is the pressure you are watching fall. The findings that would send you somewhere else are all absent. Equal breath sounds and a midline trachea argue against a pneumothorax, and an unchanged waveform argues against a circuit or perfusion problem. A patient who becomes hypotensive shortly after a PEEP increase, with those findings intact, gets the PEEP walked back toward where it was.
Why the others are wrong
Deepen sedation to stop the patient fighting the machine: Nothing here says the patient is fighting the ventilator, and sedatives lower blood pressure on their own. You would be adding a second cause of hypotension on top of the one you created.
Increase the set respiratory rate to 20: A faster rate moves more carbon dioxide, and carbon dioxide is not what changed. More breaths per minute also means more time spent at positive pressure, which pushes the blood pressure further down.
Decompress the left chest with a needle: Needle decompression is for a tension pneumothorax, and this patient has neither of its findings. Equal breath sounds with a midline trachea take that off the table before you reach for a needle.
Question 9 of 10
A 71-year-old patient with cardiogenic pulmonary edema has been on CPAP for fifteen minutes. The set on scene read BP 138/86, P 104, R 32, and SpO₂ 88%, with warm hands. The set now reads BP 136/92, P 128, R 30, and SpO₂ 91%, with cool fingertips and a slower capillary refill. What is the most useful reading of this trend?
Show the answer and rationale
Correct answer · Perfusion is falling while the pressure still holds
One set of vital signs is a snapshot, and two sets are a direction. The direction is the actual diagnosis here. The systolic barely moved, which is the number most people look at first and the one carrying the least information in this case. Look at what did move, because that is where your answer is. A pulse that climbs while the skin turns cool and the pressure holds steady is a patient compensating harder to keep that pressure where it is. The saturation improved, so the CPAP is doing its job on the lungs while the circulation loses ground underneath it. When that pressure finally does fall, it is not new information, it is late information, so act on the direction now.
Why the others are wrong
The rising pulse is anxiety from the mask: A mask can make anyone anxious, so it is a fair thought. Anxiety does not cool the fingertips and slow capillary refill, and those two findings make this a perfusion trend rather than an emotional one.
The patient is responding well to the treatment: Only one number improved, and two got worse. A rising pulse with cooling skin is a patient working harder to hold the same ground, which is not the same as responding well.
The CPAP is no longer reaching the alveoli: The saturation rose from 88% to 91%, which means pressure is reaching the alveoli and doing what it is supposed to do. The lungs are the part of this picture that improved.
Question 10 of 10
A 72-year-old patient has hypotension, tachycardia, and cool mottled skin. Crackles are audible bilaterally, and the jugular veins are distended. The paramedic determines that volume status is not in question. Which of the following is the most appropriate treatment?
Show the answer and rationale
Correct answer · Begin a vasoactive medication infusion per protocol
Bilateral crackles and jugular venous distension are the deciding findings here, especially with volume status already ruled out as the driver. The left ventricle cannot forward its output, so pressure backs up into the pulmonary and systemic venous systems while the periphery vasoconstricts, producing the cool mottled skin. That combination is cardiogenic shock, not a volume problem, so pushing fluid would only worsen congestion. The correct move is a vasoactive infusion per protocol, using an inotrope or pressor to support contractility and perfusion pressure without adding volume to an already congested system.
Why the others are wrong
Administer a large-volume normal saline bolus: Hypotension and tachycardia alone often point toward hypovolemic shock, where a fluid bolus is the standard fix. Bilateral crackles and jugular venous distension, plus the note that volume status is not in question, rule that out here: the ventricle is failing, not empty, and a large bolus only floods lungs already backing up.
Withhold treatment until a 12-lead ECG is obtained: Obtaining a 12-lead helps find an infarct or dysrhythmia behind the pump failure, but this patient already shows hypotension and cool mottled skin from hypoperfusion, and withholding treatment for diagnostics delays the vasoactive support that needs to start now.
Administer a high-dose diuretic to reduce total body fluid: Crackles from pulmonary congestion make diuresis tempting, but lowering intravascular volume further in a patient who is already hypotensive drops perfusion pressure and worsens the shock instead of treating the pump failure causing it.
Find out which Paramedic topics are costing you points
Ten questions on one topic tell you about that topic. The free diagnostic covers every Paramedic topic and breaks your results down by topic, so you know what to drill next. No card, no signup to try it.
Take the free Paramedic diagnosticMore free Paramedic practice questions by topic
Airway, Respiration & Ventilation
Cardiology & Resuscitation
- 12-Lead ECG Interpretation and STEMI Recognition
- Dysrhythmia Recognition and Management
- ACLS Pharmacology and Electrical Therapy
- Cardiogenic Shock and Decompensated Heart Failure
Medical/Obstetrics/Gynecology
- Advanced Pharmacology Principles
- Toxicology and Overdose Management
- Advanced Diabetic and Endocrine Emergencies
- Advanced Respiratory Emergencies
- Advanced Obstetric and Neonatal Emergencies
- Advanced Neurologic Emergencies
- Sepsis and Septic Shock
- Advanced Gastrointestinal Emergencies
- Pediatric and Special Population Emergencies
- Critical Care Concepts
EMS Operations
- EMS System Leadership and Quality Improvement
- Critical Care and Interfacility Transport
- Scene Safety, Personal Protection, and Infection Control
- Multiple Casualty Incidents, Triage, and Incident Command
- Documentation, Communication, and Confidentiality
- Ambulance Operations and Equipment Readiness
- Responder Wellness and Resilience