10 free Paramedic practice questions: Dysrhythmia Recognition and Management
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Question 1 of 10
A 72-year-old patient has an irregularly irregular narrow complex rhythm with a monitor rate of 148. The radial pulse counted over a full minute is 112. The skin is warm and dry and the patient is alert. The vital signs are BP 126/78, P 112, R 18, and SpO₂ 97% on room air. What explains the difference between the two rates?
Show the answer and rationale
Correct answer · Some beats are too weak to produce a palpable pulse
This is the pulse deficit, and atrial fibrillation is where it shows up. The ventricles fill for wildly different lengths of time from beat to beat, so some contractions begin with too little volume to push a wave all the way out to the wrist. The monitor counts every electrical beat, and your fingers count only the beats that made it. Document both numbers, and remember that the rate you feel is the one that is perfusing.
Why the others are wrong
The radial count ran over too short an interval to be valid: The pulse was counted for a full minute, which is exactly what an irregular rhythm requires. A shorter count would be unreliable, and that is not what happened here.
The monitor is counting artifact along with the true complexes: Artifact makes a tracing look messy and usually appears as spikes that do not fit the rhythm. An irregularly irregular rhythm with a clean complex count is not an artifact problem.
The patient converted between the two measurements: Conversion would change the rhythm rather than create two different rates for the same rhythm at the same moment.
Question 2 of 10
A 68-year-old patient reports lightheadedness. The rhythm strip shows a PR interval that stays the same on every conducted beat, with occasional P waves that are not followed by a QRS complex and no warning before each dropped beat. The vital signs are BP 104/68, P 46, R 16, and SpO₂ 96% on room air. Which rhythm does this describe?
Show the answer and rationale
Correct answer · Second degree atrioventricular block type II
The decisive finding is the fixed PR interval on every conducted beat combined with sudden, unwarned dropped QRS complexes. Type II block sits below the AV node, in the bundle of His or bundle branches, so conduction either gets through cleanly or fails outright, with no progressive fatigue of the node to warn you first. This distinction matters because type II carries a high risk of sudden progression to complete heart block, so it calls for transcutaneous pacing readiness and close monitoring rather than an atropine-first approach that works for a block above the node.
Why the others are wrong
Second degree atrioventricular block type I: Second degree type I, or Wenckebach, is the block that dropped beats should point to, since the PR interval lengthens with each conducted beat until one P wave fails to conduct. This strip shows no warning: the PR interval stays fixed on every conducted beat before the drop, pointing to a block below the AV node.
First degree atrioventricular block: First degree block only prolongs the PR interval past 0.20 seconds while every P wave still conducts a QRS, nothing ever drops. This strip has P waves that are not followed by a QRS complex, so conduction is failing outright, not just slowing at the node.
Third degree atrioventricular block: Third degree block means complete AV dissociation, with the atria and ventricles each pacing independently and no fixed relationship between P waves and QRS complexes. This strip keeps a constant PR interval on every conducted beat, proving some P waves are still capturing the ventricle.
Question 3 of 10
A 24-year-old patient reports palpitations that began an hour ago. The monitor shows a regular wide complex tachycardia at 172. The patient is alert with warm, dry skin and no chest pain. The vital signs are BP 118/76, P 172, R 18, and SpO₂ 98% on room air. Which treatment approach is appropriate?
Show the answer and rationale
Correct answer · An antiarrhythmic per protocol, treating the rhythm as ventricular
Wide and fast, of uncertain origin, is treated as ventricular tachycardia. Age does not sort this out, and neither does a normal blood pressure, because a ventricular tachycardia can hold a pressure for a while before it stops holding it. A stable patient gets an antiarrhythmic per protocol. What you never reach for is a calcium channel blocker, because dropping one into a ventricular tachycardia or into atrial fibrillation that conducts down an accessory pathway can cause hemodynamic collapse.
Why the others are wrong
Adenosine 12 mg as the first dose, since a wide rhythm needs the larger dose: Adenosine is reasonable for a wide complex tachycardia that is regular and monomorphic, so the drug is not the error. The dose is. The first dose is 6 mg no matter how wide the QRS is, and 12 mg comes only if 6 mg fails. Adenosine is never for an irregular or polymorphic wide complex rhythm.
Verapamil, since the young age makes a supraventricular origin likely: Age is not a differential. Young patients have ventricular tachycardia, and a calcium channel blocker given on that assumption can drop the pressure out from under the rhythm.
Synchronized cardioversion, since any wide complex rhythm is unstable: Cardioversion is the answer when the patient is unstable. Alert, warm, dry, and 118 systolic is not unstable, and sedating and shocking a stable patient skips a step a drug can handle.
Question 4 of 10
A 54-year-old patient who missed two dialysis sessions is weak and nauseated. The monitor shows peaked, narrow based T waves with a QRS that has widened over the past 10 minutes and P waves that are becoming difficult to see. The vital signs are BP 96/62, P 52, R 20, and SpO₂ 96% on room air. Which intervention should be given first?
Show the answer and rationale
Correct answer · Calcium chloride by slow intravenous push
These ECG changes are a direct effect of potassium on the cardiac cell membrane, so the first move is to stabilize that membrane. Calcium chloride does it directly, and it acts faster than anything that actually lowers the serum potassium. The potassium lowering measures are appropriate adjuncts and they follow. When missed dialysis and this ECG progression line up, calcium comes first and the rest comes after it.
Why the others are wrong
Albuterol by nebulizer at a high dose: Albuterol does move potassium into the cells, and it takes time to do it. Time is what this rhythm does not have while the QRS keeps widening.
Sodium bicarbonate by intravenous push: Sodium bicarbonate shifts potassium as well, and like the other shifting agents it is an adjunct rather than the opening move once the membrane is already destabilized.
Atropine by intravenous push: Atropine is the reflex for a rate of 52, and it treats vagal tone, which is not what is slowing this heart. Potassium has stalled the conduction system, and atropine does nothing for that membrane; calcium does, and the rate follows it.
Question 5 of 10
What is the correct sequence for systematically analyzing a rhythm strip?
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Correct answer · Rate, regularity, P waves, PR interval, QRS width
Rate, then regularity, then P waves, then PR interval, then QRS width: the order runs broad to narrow. Rate and regularity are visible from arm's length and cut the field in half twice (fast or slow, regular or irregular), so by the time you start hunting for P waves you already know what you are hunting in. Then you drill down: are there P waves at all, does each one relate to a QRS (the PR interval), and is conduction below the AV node intact (QRS width). Run the same five steps in the same order on every strip and the rhythm names sort themselves out.
Why the others are wrong
QRS width, PR interval, P waves, regularity, rate: All five components are present, but the sequence is inverted. It opens with the most granular measurement and ends with the one you can see from across the room. There is one setting where width does come first, the crashing tachycardic patient where wide versus narrow drives the treatment path, but that is a treatment shortcut, not the systematic strip analysis this question is asking about.
P waves, rate, QRS width, regularity, PR interval: Again all five components, scrambled. The tell is P waves in the lead position with regularity buried at fourth. Studying P-wave morphology before you know the rate means examining a detail without the context that tells you what the detail means.
Regularity, rate, PR interval, P waves, QRS width: This is the closest wrong answer and the one worth learning from: it swaps only the first two steps and moves the PR interval ahead of the P waves. Both errors matter. Rate is step one, and measuring a PR interval before confirming that P waves exist is measuring from a landmark you have not established yet.
Question 6 of 10
Which finding is most characteristic of atrial fibrillation on a rhythm strip?
Show the answer and rationale
Correct answer · An irregularly irregular rhythm with no discrete P waves
In atrial fibrillation the atria are not depolarizing as a unit: hundreds of chaotic reentrant impulses fire at once, so there is no organized atrial contraction and therefore no discrete P wave, only a wavy fibrillating baseline. The AV node passes those impulses through erratically, and that erratic conduction is what produces a ventricular response with no repeating pattern at all. Irregularly irregular is the single identifying feature: no group beating, no fixed ratio, nothing you can march out with calipers. It also explains the clinical risk: loss of atrial kick and blood pooling in a quivering atrium is where the clots come from.
Why the others are wrong
A regular rhythm with a sawtooth baseline pattern: A sawtooth baseline with a regular ventricular response is atrial flutter, one organized reentrant circuit looping the atrium at a fixed rate and conducting in a set ratio like 2:1 or 3:1. Both rhythms are atrial and both can run fast; the split is organized versus chaotic. Flutter has a repeating pattern you can measure, fibrillation has none.
An irregular rhythm with P waves of changing shape before each QRS complex: An irregular rhythm with P waves that change shape from beat to beat describes a wandering atrial pacemaker: the pacemaker site drifts among different atrial foci, so each P wave looks different, but a P wave still precedes each QRS. That is the discriminator: atrial fibrillation has no P waves to find, so the presence of discrete P waves of any shape excludes it.
A narrow, regular rhythm at 180 with no visible P waves: This is the trap worth naming, because no visible P waves matches. A narrow, regular rhythm at 180 is supraventricular tachycardia (SVT), where the P waves are buried in or behind the QRS at that speed. The clinching differentiator is not the P waves at all, it is regularity: SVT is metronome-regular, atrial fibrillation never is.
Question 7 of 10
A 70-year-old patient is found confused, with skin that is pale, cool, and diaphoretic. The vital signs are BP 74/42. The cardiac monitor shows a narrow-complex, regular rhythm at a rate of 190 with no visible P waves. What is the most appropriate immediate management for the paramedic to take?
Show the answer and rationale
Correct answer · Immediate synchronized cardioversion
The decisive finding is the blood pressure of 74/42 paired with confusion: this patient is hemodynamically unstable, not just tachycardic. At a rate of 190 with no visible P waves, diastolic filling time is too short for adequate ventricular filling, so stroke volume and cardiac output collapse, producing the pale, cool, diaphoretic skin and altered mentation. Once instability is present, the tachycardia algorithm moves straight to immediate synchronized cardioversion; drugs and vagal techniques are reserved for patients who are still perfusing well enough to tolerate the delay they require.
Why the others are wrong
Vagal maneuvers followed by reassessment before any further intervention: Vagal maneuvers work by stimulating the vagus nerve to slow conduction through the AV node, and they're the correct first move in a stable, narrow-complex SVT. The BP of 74/42 with confusion shows this patient can't tolerate that delay. Vagal maneuvers belong to the stable pathway, not this unstable one.
Adenosine administration only, with no further escalation planned: Adenosine blocks AV nodal conduction and is the drug of choice for stable, regular narrow-complex SVT. The BP of 74/42 with confusion and diaphoresis makes this patient unstable, where drug therapy alone can't be chosen over cardioversion; it treats the rhythm while the perfusion failure keeps going untreated.
Supportive care, oxygen, and transport with continuous monitoring only: Supportive oxygen and monitoring fits a patient who's tachycardic but still perfusing adequately, tolerating the rate without symptoms. Here the BP of 74/42, confusion, and cool, diaphoretic skin show decompensation already underway, so monitoring alone withholds the cardioversion needed to correct the rhythm causing that hypotension.
Question 8 of 10
A 34-year-old patient reports sharp chest discomfort that began two days after a flu-like illness. The discomfort is worse when lying flat and improves when sitting up and leaning forward. The chest wall is not tender to palpation, the lung sounds are clear, and the neck veins are flat. The 12-lead ECG shows ST-segment elevation across nearly every lead group with depression of the segment between the P wave and the ventricular complex, and there are no reciprocal changes. The vital signs are BP 126/78, P 98, and R 18. What condition should the paramedic most strongly suspect as the cause of this emergency?
Show the answer and rationale
Correct answer · Acute pericarditis
Pericardial inflammation is diffuse rather than confined to one coronary artery's territory, so the ST-segment elevation appears across lead groups that no single vessel supplies and there are no reciprocal depressions in the opposite leads. Depression of the segment between the P wave and the ventricular complex reflects atrial injury from that same inflammation and is a recognized companion finding, and it is close to specific for this diagnosis. The history supports the same conclusion: a recent viral illness, sharp discomfort that is worse lying flat and better sitting up and leaning forward, a chest wall that is not tender, clear lungs, and flat neck veins. Recognizing the mimic matters because it changes the destination decision and the interpretation of the ST-segment elevation, although the patient is still managed as a suspected acute coronary syndrome until the diagnosis is settled in the hospital.
Why the others are wrong
Aortic dissection: the answer to sudden tearing or ripping pain, often radiating to the back, with a blood pressure or pulse difference between the arms and sometimes a new murmur or a focal neurologic deficit. It has to be considered in any chest pain, but nothing here supports it, since the pain is sharp and clearly positional, it followed a viral illness rather than starting abruptly at maximum intensity, and the vital signs are unremarkable. The clinching separator is the positional quality, because dissection pain does not care what position the patient sits in, while pain that eases leaning forward points straight at the pericardium.
Anterior myocardial infarction: the right read when ST elevation is confined to the anterior precordial leads with reciprocal depression in the inferior leads, in a patient with pressure-like discomfort and a sympathetic response. Two findings rule it out here: the elevation crosses nearly every lead group, which no single coronary artery supplies, and there are no reciprocal depressions at all. This is the classic pair to separate, and the single clinching discriminator is reciprocal change, because regional injury produces it and diffuse inflammation cannot, since there is no uninvolved opposite wall.
Pulmonary embolism: produces sudden pleuritic pain with difficulty breathing, tachycardia, and hypoxemia, usually with a risk factor such as recent immobility, surgery, or malignancy, and pleuritic pain is a genuine overlap with pericarditis. This patient's lungs are clear, the neck veins are flat, the respiratory rate is 18, and the pain is positional rather than simply pleuritic. The key wins on the tracing, because diffuse elevation with depression of the segment between the P wave and the ventricular complex is an atrial-injury pattern an embolus does not create.
Question 9 of 10
A 29-year-old patient reports a sudden onset of a racing heartbeat and mild lightheadedness. The patient is alert, the skin is warm and dry, and the lung sounds are clear. The cardiac monitor shows a regular narrow-complex rhythm at 186 with no discernible P waves. The vital signs are BP 118/74, P 186, and R 18, with SpO₂ 98% on room air. Vagal maneuvers have been attempted twice with no change in the rhythm, and intravenous access is in place. What is the most appropriate next intervention?
Show the answer and rationale
Correct answer · Adenosine 6 mg rapid intravenous push
A regular narrow-complex tachycardia at 186 with no visible P waves, in a patient who is alert and normotensive with warm dry skin and clear lungs, is a stable supraventricular tachycardia. The stable branch of the tachycardia algorithm begins with vagal maneuvers and then moves to adenosine, whose first dose is 6 mg given as a rapid push into a proximal vein and followed immediately by a flush, because the drug's half-life is measured in seconds and a slow push simply never reaches the heart. If the rhythm persists, a single 12 mg dose may follow. Adenosine works by briefly blocking conduction through the atrioventricular node, which interrupts the reentrant circuit that sustains this rhythm, and the same block is what makes it diagnostic when the rhythm turns out to be something else.
Why the others are wrong
Amiodarone 150 mg over 10 minutes: Amiodarone belongs to a stable wide-complex tachycardia, or to ventricular tachycardia with a pulse, where the origin is below the atrioventricular node and a nodal blocking drug would accomplish nothing. The complexes here are narrow, which places the origin above the ventricles and puts this patient on a different branch of the algorithm entirely. The key also does something amiodarone cannot: it both treats and diagnoses, because interrupting the node either breaks the circuit or unmasks the underlying atrial rhythm within seconds, while amiodarone is a ten-minute infusion aimed at a ventricular origin this patient does not have.
Adenosine 12 mg rapid intravenous push: Twelve milligrams is the correct adenosine dose, just not the first one. It is what follows when a properly pushed 6 mg dose has failed to convert the rhythm, and skipping ahead to it delivers more drug than needed along with a larger burst of the unpleasant effects patients report, chest pressure, flushing, a brief sense of doom, and a several-second pause. This choice and the key are the same drug and the same mechanism, and the key wins purely on sequence, which is the point the item is testing.
Synchronized cardioversion at 100 J: Synchronized cardioversion is the answer for an unstable narrow-complex tachycardia, meaning hypotension, altered mental status, ischemic chest discomfort, or acute heart failure that is being caused by the rate. This patient is alert, with warm dry skin, clear lungs, and a blood pressure of 118/74, and mild lightheadedness at a rate of 186 does not meet the definition of instability. The stability question is what sorts this algorithm into its two branches, and the stable branch earns a trial of a drug before electricity and the sedation that goes with it.
Question 10 of 10
A 7-month-old infant is unresponsive after 3 days of vomiting and poor feeding. The airway has been opened, and positive pressure ventilations with high-flow oxygen have been delivered effectively for 30 seconds with visible chest rise and no airway obstruction. The skin remains mottled and cyanotic, and capillary refill is 5 seconds. A brachial pulse is present at 44. The cardiac monitor shows a sinus bradycardia at 44, and SpO₂ is 90% with positive pressure ventilations. What is the most appropriate next intervention?
Show the answer and rationale
Correct answer · Begin chest compressions coordinated with ventilations
The decisive finding is a heart rate of 44 with mottled, cyanotic skin and a 5-second capillary refill persisting after 30 seconds of effective positive pressure ventilation with high-flow oxygen. In infants, bradycardia below 60 is almost always hypoxic myocardial depression, not a conduction defect; once oxygenation and ventilation are optimized and perfusion still fails, cardiac output has dropped below what the circulation needs to sustain organ perfusion. PALS calls for chest compressions coordinated with ventilations, 15:2 with two rescuers, to restore that output before any drug is given.
Why the others are wrong
Administer epinephrine 0.01 mg/kg intravenously: Epinephrine 0.01 mg/kg IV is correct for pediatric bradycardia persisting despite oxygenation, ventilation, and compressions, and a heart rate of 44 makes it the immediate reach, but compressions haven't started, and a drug pushed into an uncirculated heart never reaches the coronary arteries in useful concentration. This is a sequence error, not a drug error.
Administer atropine 0.02 mg/kg intravenously: Atropine 0.02 mg/kg treats bradycardia from vagal stimulation, such as during intubation or suctioning, or from organophosphate poisoning; this infant's bradycardia developed over three days of vomiting and poor feeding from hypoxia, not vagal tone, so blocking the vagus does nothing for a starved myocardium.
Initiate transcutaneous pacing at 100: Transcutaneous pacing at 100 fits complete heart block or sick sinus syndrome, where the conduction system fails but the muscle is otherwise healthy; this hypoxic infant's myocardium can't mechanically respond, so pacing would capture electrically on the monitor while producing no real cardiac output.
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