10 free Paramedic practice questions: Dysrhythmia Recognition and Management
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Question 1 of 10
A 72-year-old patient has an irregularly irregular narrow complex rhythm with a monitor rate of 148. The radial pulse counted over a full minute is 112. The skin is warm and dry and the patient is alert. The vital signs are BP 126/78, P 112, R 18, and SpO₂ 97% on room air. What explains the difference between the two rates?
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Correct answer · Some beats are too weak to produce a palpable pulse
This is a pulse deficit. The rhythm is narrow and irregularly irregular, which is atrial fibrillation, and atrial fibrillation is where a pulse deficit shows up. The monitor reads 148, and the radial pulse counted over a full minute is 112. In atrial fibrillation, the ventricles fill for a different length of time with every beat. After a short fill, the ventricle has too little blood in it to push a pulse wave all the way out to the wrist. The monitor counts every electrical beat. Your fingers only count the beats that make it to the wrist. Document both numbers. The rate you feel at the wrist is the rate that is actually perfusing the patient.
Why the others are wrong
The radial count ran over too short an interval to be valid: A short count is a real problem with an irregular rhythm, because the beats are not evenly spaced. This radial pulse was counted over a full minute, which is how an irregular rhythm should be counted.
The monitor is counting artifact along with the true complexes: Artifact makes a tracing look messy, usually with spikes that do not fit the rhythm. This tracing is a clean irregularly irregular rhythm, so artifact does not explain the gap between the two rates.
The patient converted between the two measurements: Converting to a new rhythm would change what the monitor shows. Conversion does not give you two different rates from the same rhythm at the same moment.
Question 2 of 10
A 68-year-old patient reports lightheadedness. The rhythm strip shows a PR interval that stays the same on every conducted beat, with occasional P waves that are not followed by a QRS complex and no warning before each dropped beat. The vital signs are BP 104/68, P 46, R 16, and SpO₂ 96% on room air. Which rhythm does this describe?
Show the answer and rationale
Correct answer · Second degree atrioventricular block type II
This is second degree atrioventricular block type II. The PR interval stays the same on every conducted beat. Some P waves are not followed by a QRS, and there is no warning before each dropped beat. Type II block sits below the AV node, in the bundle of His or the bundle branches. Each impulse either gets through cleanly or fails completely. There is no gradual slowing at the node to warn you first. Type II block has a high risk of suddenly turning into complete heart block. Have transcutaneous pacing ready and monitor closely. Atropine works for a block above the node, so do not plan on atropine first here.
Why the others are wrong
Second degree atrioventricular block type I: Second degree type I, also called Wenckebach, drops beats too. In type I, the PR interval gets longer with each conducted beat until one P wave does not conduct. This strip gives no warning. The PR interval stays fixed on every conducted beat before the drop, and a fixed PR interval points to a block below the AV node.
First degree atrioventricular block: First degree block only makes the PR interval longer than 0.20 seconds. Every P wave still conducts a QRS, and no beats drop. This strip has P waves with no QRS after them, so conduction is failing outright, not just slowing at the node.
Third degree atrioventricular block: Third degree block is complete AV dissociation. The atria and the ventricles each beat on their own, with no fixed link between the P waves and the QRS complexes. This strip keeps the same PR interval on every conducted beat. The constant PR interval shows some P waves are still getting through to the ventricles.
Question 3 of 10
A 24-year-old patient reports palpitations that began an hour ago. The monitor shows a regular wide complex tachycardia at 172. The patient is alert with warm, dry skin and no chest pain. The vital signs are BP 118/76, P 172, R 18, and SpO₂ 98% on room air. Which treatment approach is appropriate?
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Correct answer · An antiarrhythmic per protocol, treating the rhythm as ventricular
A wide and fast rhythm with an unknown origin is handled as ventricular tachycardia. The monitor shows a regular wide complex tachycardia at 172. The patient's age does not tell you where this rhythm starts. A normal blood pressure does not tell you either. Ventricular tachycardia can hold a blood pressure for a while and then lose it. This patient is alert, warm, and dry with a blood pressure of 118/76, so the patient is stable. A stable patient gets an antiarrhythmic per protocol. Do not give a calcium channel blocker. A calcium channel blocker given in ventricular tachycardia, or in atrial fibrillation that runs down an accessory pathway, can make the blood pressure collapse.
Why the others are wrong
Adenosine 12 mg as the first dose, since a wide rhythm needs the larger dose: Adenosine can be used for a wide complex tachycardia that is regular and monomorphic. The problem is the 12 mg first dose. The first dose is 6 mg no matter how wide the QRS is, and 12 mg comes only if 6 mg fails. Adenosine is never for an irregular or polymorphic wide complex rhythm.
Verapamil, since the young age makes a supraventricular origin likely: Verapamil is a calcium channel blocker, and it is meant for rhythms that start above the ventricles. Young patients still get ventricular tachycardia. Giving verapamil on a guess about age can drop the blood pressure out from under the rhythm.
Synchronized cardioversion, since any wide complex rhythm is unstable: Synchronized cardioversion is the right call for an unstable patient. This patient is alert, warm, and dry with a systolic pressure of 118, which is stable. Sedating and shocking a stable patient skips a step that a drug can handle.
Question 4 of 10
A 54-year-old patient who missed two dialysis sessions is weak and nauseated. The monitor shows peaked, narrow based T waves with a QRS that has widened over the past 10 minutes and P waves that are becoming difficult to see. The vital signs are BP 96/62, P 52, R 20, and SpO₂ 96% on room air. Which intervention should be given first?
Show the answer and rationale
Correct answer · Calcium chloride by slow intravenous push
This patient has hyperkalemia, a high potassium level, from missing two dialysis sessions. The T waves are peaked, the QRS has widened over the past 10 minutes, and the P waves are fading. Those ECG changes come from potassium acting directly on the membrane of the heart cells. The first job is to stabilize that membrane. Calcium chloride stabilizes the membrane directly, and it works faster than anything that actually lowers the potassium level. Give calcium chloride first. The treatments that lower the potassium come after calcium.
Why the others are wrong
Albuterol by nebulizer at a high dose: Albuterol does move potassium into the cells. Albuterol takes time to work, and this rhythm does not have time while the QRS keeps getting wider.
Sodium bicarbonate by intravenous push: Sodium bicarbonate also shifts potassium into the cells. Like the other shifting drugs, sodium bicarbonate is an add on that follows calcium once the membrane is already unstable.
Atropine by intravenous push: Atropine is the usual drug for a slow heart rate like 52, and atropine works by blocking vagal tone. Vagal tone is not what is slowing this heart. Potassium has slowed the conduction system, and atropine does nothing for the cell membrane. Calcium does, and the heart rate improves once the membrane is stable.
Question 5 of 10
Which finding is most characteristic of atrial fibrillation on a rhythm strip?
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Correct answer · An irregularly irregular rhythm with no discrete P waves
Atrial fibrillation is an irregularly irregular rhythm with no discrete P waves. In atrial fibrillation, the atria do not depolarize together. Hundreds of chaotic impulses fire at once, so the atria never contract in an organized way. With no organized contraction, there is no discrete P wave. You see a wavy, fibrillating baseline instead. The AV node passes those impulses through at random. That's why the ventricular rhythm has no repeating pattern at all. There is no group beating and no fixed ratio. Irregularly irregular is the one finding that identifies atrial fibrillation. The atria also lose their kick, and blood pools in the quivering atria. That pooled blood is where the clots in atrial fibrillation come from.
Why the others are wrong
A regular rhythm with a sawtooth baseline pattern: A sawtooth baseline with a regular rhythm is atrial flutter. Atrial flutter is one organized circuit looping around the atrium at a fixed rate. Flutter conducts in a set ratio, like 2:1 or 3:1, so flutter has a repeating pattern you can measure. Atrial fibrillation has no pattern.
An irregular rhythm with P waves of changing shape before each QRS complex: An irregular rhythm with P waves that change shape is a wandering atrial pacemaker. The pacemaker site moves between different spots in the atria, so each P wave looks different. A P wave still comes before each QRS. Atrial fibrillation has no P waves to find, so any discrete P wave rules atrial fibrillation out.
A narrow, regular rhythm at 180 with no visible P waves: A narrow, regular rhythm at 180 is supraventricular tachycardia (SVT). At that speed, the P waves are hidden in or behind the QRS. No visible P waves fits both rhythms. What separates SVT from atrial fibrillation is regularity. SVT is regular, and atrial fibrillation never is.
Question 6 of 10
Which finding is most consistent with third-degree (complete) heart block?
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Correct answer · P waves and QRS complexes both present but with no consistent relationship to each other
P waves and QRS complexes with no consistent relationship is the finding of third-degree heart block, also called complete heart block. In complete heart block, nothing gets through the AV node. The atria and the ventricles each fall back on their own pacemaker and beat on their own. Beating separately like this is called AV dissociation. The SA node keeps firing P waves at its own rate. An escape pacemaker below the block fires the QRS complexes at a slower rate. Both pacemakers are steady, so the P-P intervals are regular and the R-R intervals are regular. The PR interval changes from beat to beat, because the P waves and the QRS complexes are not connected. An escape rate that slow usually leaves the patient bradycardic with symptoms and headed for pacing.
Why the others are wrong
Progressive lengthening of the PR interval with each beat until a QRS complex is dropped: A PR interval that gets longer each beat until a QRS drops is second-degree type I, also called Wenckebach. The AV node gets a little more tired with each beat until one beat does not get through. Then the AV node recovers and the pattern starts over. In Wenckebach, the P waves and the QRS complexes are still connected. The connection just gets worse each beat. Complete block has no connection at all.
A constant PR interval on conducted beats with an occasional dropped QRS complex: A constant PR interval with an occasional dropped QRS is second-degree type II. The block is below the AV node and is all or nothing. The conducted beats have a fixed PR interval, so some beats are still getting through. Complete block conducts nothing.
Absence of discernible P waves accompanied by an irregularly irregular ventricular response: No P waves with an irregularly irregular ventricular rate is atrial fibrillation. Complete heart block does have P waves, and they are regular. The R-R interval in complete block is regular too, because the escape pacemaker is steady.
Question 7 of 10
A 70-year-old patient is found confused, with skin that is pale, cool, and diaphoretic. The vital signs are BP 74/42. The cardiac monitor shows a narrow-complex, regular rhythm at a rate of 190 with no visible P waves. What is the most appropriate immediate management for the paramedic to take?
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Correct answer · Immediate synchronized cardioversion
This patient is in unstable SVT, a narrow, regular rhythm at 190 with no visible P waves. The blood pressure is 74/42, and the patient is confused. The low blood pressure and the confusion make this patient unstable, not just tachycardic. At a rate of 190, the ventricles do not have enough time to fill between beats. Less filling means less blood pumped out with each beat, and cardiac output drops. That's why the skin is pale, cool, and diaphoretic and the patient is confused. Once a patient is unstable, the tachycardia algorithm goes straight to synchronized cardioversion. Vagal maneuvers and drugs are for patients perfusing well enough to tolerate the delay those treatments take.
Why the others are wrong
Vagal maneuvers followed by reassessment before any further intervention: Vagal maneuvers stimulate the vagus nerve to slow conduction through the AV node. Vagal maneuvers are the right first step in stable, narrow-complex SVT. With a blood pressure of 74/42 and confusion, this patient cannot tolerate the delay.
Adenosine administration only, with no further escalation planned: Adenosine blocks conduction through the AV node and is the drug of choice for stable, regular, narrow-complex SVT. This patient is unstable, with a blood pressure of 74/42, confusion, and diaphoresis. For an unstable patient, the tachycardia algorithm calls for cardioversion instead of a drug alone. Adenosine only, with no plan to escalate, treats the rhythm while the poor perfusion goes on.
Supportive care, oxygen, and transport with continuous monitoring only: Oxygen and monitoring fit a patient who is tachycardic but still perfusing well and tolerating the rate. This patient already has a blood pressure of 74/42, confusion, and cool, diaphoretic skin. Monitoring alone holds back the cardioversion this patient needs to fix the rhythm causing the low blood pressure.
Question 8 of 10
A 34-year-old patient reports sharp chest discomfort that began two days after a flu-like illness. The discomfort is worse when lying flat and improves when sitting up and leaning forward. The chest wall is not tender to palpation, the lung sounds are clear, and the neck veins are flat. The 12-lead ECG shows ST-segment elevation across nearly every lead group with depression of the segment between the P wave and the ventricular complex, and there are no reciprocal changes. The vital signs are BP 126/78, P 98, and R 18. What condition should the paramedic most strongly suspect as the cause of this emergency?
Show the answer and rationale
Correct answer · Acute pericarditis
This patient has acute pericarditis, which is inflammation of the sac around the heart. The discomfort started two days after a flu-like illness. The discomfort is worse lying flat and better sitting up and leaning forward. The chest wall is not tender, the lungs are clear, and the neck veins are flat. The 12-lead shows ST elevation across nearly every lead group, with no reciprocal changes. The segment between the P wave and the QRS complex is depressed, which is called PR depression. The inflammation covers the whole pericardium instead of one artery's territory. That's why the ST elevation shows up in leads that no single artery supplies. There is no healthy opposite wall, so there are no reciprocal depressions. The PR depression comes from the same inflammation injuring the atria, and PR depression is close to specific for pericarditis. Recognizing pericarditis changes how you read the ST elevation and where you take the patient. Until the hospital settles the diagnosis, the patient is still managed as a possible acute coronary syndrome.
Why the others are wrong
Aortic dissection: causes sudden tearing pain, often into the back. You may find a difference in blood pressure or pulse between the arms, a new murmur, or a neurologic deficit. This patient's pain is sharp and changes with position. Dissection pain does not ease when the patient sits up and leans forward. The pain also followed a viral illness instead of starting at full strength, and the vital signs are normal.
Anterior myocardial infarction: An anterior MI shows ST elevation in the anterior chest leads, with reciprocal depression in the inferior leads. The patient usually has pressure-like discomfort. Two findings rule an anterior MI out here. The ST elevation crosses nearly every lead group, and no single coronary artery supplies all of those areas. There are also no reciprocal depressions at all. A blocked artery injures one area, and the opposite wall shows the reciprocal change. Pericarditis inflames the whole pericardium, so no healthy opposite wall is left to show one.
Pulmonary embolism: A pulmonary embolism causes sudden pleuritic pain, which is sharp pain that gets worse with breathing. Trouble breathing, a fast heart rate, and low oxygen come with it. There is usually a risk factor like recent immobility, surgery, or cancer. Pleuritic pain does overlap with pericarditis. This patient's lungs are clear, the neck veins are flat, and the respiratory rate is 18. The pain is positional, not just pleuritic. A pulmonary embolism also does not cause diffuse ST elevation with PR depression.
Question 9 of 10
A 29-year-old patient reports a sudden onset of a racing heartbeat and mild lightheadedness. The patient is alert, the skin is warm and dry, and the lung sounds are clear. The cardiac monitor shows a regular narrow-complex rhythm at 186 with no discernible P waves. The vital signs are BP 118/74, P 186, and R 18, with SpO₂ 98% on room air. Vagal maneuvers have been attempted twice with no change in the rhythm, and intravenous access is in place. What is the most appropriate next intervention?
Show the answer and rationale
Correct answer · Adenosine 6 mg rapid intravenous push
This patient is in a stable supraventricular tachycardia, and adenosine 6 mg is the next step. The rhythm is regular and narrow at 186 with no visible P waves. The patient is alert with a pressure of 118/74, warm dry skin, and clear lungs. The stable branch of the tachycardia algorithm starts with vagal maneuvers and then moves to adenosine. Vagal maneuvers have already failed twice. The first adenosine dose is 6 mg, pushed rapidly into a vein close to the heart and followed right away by a flush. Adenosine lasts only seconds, and a slow push never reaches the heart. If the rhythm does not convert, one 12 mg dose may follow. Adenosine briefly blocks conduction through the atrioventricular node. Blocking the node breaks the reentry circuit that sustains this rhythm. The same block helps you diagnose the rhythm if it turns out to be something else.
Why the others are wrong
Amiodarone 150 mg over 10 minutes: Amiodarone belongs to a stable wide-complex tachycardia, like ventricular tachycardia with a pulse. In that rhythm the problem starts below the atrioventricular node, and a drug that blocks the node would do nothing. The complexes here are narrow. Narrow complexes put the origin above the ventricles and put this patient on a different branch of the algorithm. Adenosine also treats and diagnoses within seconds. Amiodarone is a 10 minute infusion aimed at a ventricular rhythm this patient does not have.
Adenosine 12 mg rapid intravenous push: Adenosine 12 mg is the right dose, just not the first one. The 12 mg dose follows when a 6 mg dose, pushed correctly, has failed to convert the rhythm. Jumping to 12 mg gives more drug than needed. The patient also gets more of the side effects, like chest pressure, flushing, a brief sense of doom, and a pause of several seconds. Both doses are the same drug with the same mechanism, and the 6 mg dose comes first.
Synchronized cardioversion at 100 J: Synchronized cardioversion is for an unstable narrow-complex tachycardia. Unstable means hypotension, altered mental status, ischemic chest discomfort, or acute heart failure caused by the fast rate. This patient is alert, with warm dry skin, clear lungs, and a pressure of 118/74. Mild lightheadedness at a rate of 186 does not make this patient unstable. A stable patient gets a drug before electricity and the sedation that comes with cardioversion.
Question 10 of 10
A 7-month-old infant is unresponsive after 3 days of vomiting and poor feeding. The airway has been opened, and positive pressure ventilations with high-flow oxygen have been delivered effectively for 30 seconds with visible chest rise and no airway obstruction. The skin remains mottled and cyanotic, and capillary refill is 5 seconds. A brachial pulse is present at 44. The cardiac monitor shows a sinus bradycardia at 44, and SpO₂ is 90% with positive pressure ventilations. What is the most appropriate next intervention?
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Correct answer · Begin chest compressions coordinated with ventilations
This infant has bradycardia with poor perfusion. The heart rate is 44. The skin is still mottled and cyanotic, and capillary refill is 5 seconds. Those findings are still there after 30 seconds of good ventilations with high-flow oxygen and visible chest rise. Bradycardia in a sick infant usually means hypoxia, and cardiac arrest is close. You have already opened the airway and ventilated well. The heart is still not pumping enough blood to the body. When the rate stays below 60 with poor perfusion despite good ventilation, you start chest compressions. Coordinate the compressions with ventilations at 15:2 with two rescuers. Keep going until the pulse and perfusion improve.
Why the others are wrong
Administer epinephrine 0.01 mg/kg intravenously: Epinephrine 0.01 mg/kg IV is the main drug for an infant with bradycardia and poor perfusion. Epinephrine does not replace compressions. This infant's rate is still below 60 with poor perfusion after good ventilation, and that is the point where compressions start. Start compressions now, then give epinephrine if the bradycardia continues.
Administer atropine 0.02 mg/kg intravenously: Atropine 0.02 mg/kg is for bradycardia from increased vagal tone, like during suctioning, or from a primary AV block. The monitor shows sinus bradycardia, not a heart block. This infant became unresponsive after three days of vomiting and poor feeding. The slow rate here points to hypoxia, and blocking the vagus nerve does not fix hypoxia.
Initiate transcutaneous pacing at 100: Transcutaneous pacing is considered for bradycardia that does not respond to oxygenation, ventilation, and drugs, like complete heart block. This monitor shows sinus bradycardia, not complete heart block. This infant has not had compressions or any drug yet.
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