10 free Paramedic practice questions: Sepsis and Septic Shock
These are real questions from the same bank the app draws from. Each one is written to the NREMT Paramedic content specifications and kept inside the Paramedic scope of practice. Pick an answer and you get the full rationale, including why the other three options are wrong.
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Question 1 of 10
An 80-year-old patient with a history of heart failure has pneumonia, with crackles at both lung bases. The vital signs are BP 86/52, P 118, R 28, and SpO₂ 90% on room air. How should fluid be given?
Show the answer and rationale
Correct answer · In small boluses, reassessing the lung sounds each time
The reflex in sepsis is 30 mL/kg, and the reflex in heart failure is to keep fluid away. Put both patients in one body and neither reflex survives intact. What survives is the method: give fluid in small boluses and reassess after each one, using the lung sounds, the work of breathing, and the perfusion you can see. Heart failure and renal patients get smaller volumes, not zero, because the volume deficit in septic shock is real and a vasopressor cannot substitute for filling the tank. Reassessment is what lets you keep going or stop, and that is the part the exam is testing.
Why the others are wrong
As a maintenance drip only, with the pressure watched closely: A slow drip is tempting as a compromise between doing nothing and doing harm. Maintenance rates do not move an intravascular deficit, so the patient stays underfilled while the clock runs.
As a full 30 mL/kg bolus run in as fast as the line allows: The standard volume is tempting because it is the number quoted for sepsis everywhere. Pushed into a failing heart without reassessment it fills the lungs, and the patient trades one problem for another.
Not at all, moving straight to a vasopressor instead: Skipping fluid is tempting because the crackles make every drop feel dangerous. Heart failure patients get smaller volumes, not zero, and a vasopressor squeezing an empty tank does not fix the volume deficit underneath.
Question 2 of 10
A 66-year-old patient with sepsis has received 30 mL/kg of isotonic crystalloid over 40 minutes, and the lungs remain clear. The vital signs are now BP 78/44, P 126, R 26, and SpO₂ 93% on room air. What should the paramedic do next?
Show the answer and rationale
Correct answer · Start a norepinephrine infusion titrated to the pressure
Recognizing the transition point is the judgment being tested, not the decision to give fluid at all. Septic shock starts as a volume problem because the capillaries are leaking, so crystalloid comes first, commonly cited around 30 mL/kg. When the pressure still will not come up after that, what is left is vascular tone, and tone is treated with a vasopressor. Norepinephrine is the recommended first-line agent because its alpha effect raises mean arterial pressure with only modest beta stimulation, producing less rhythm trouble than dopamine at the same amount of pressure support. Keep watching the lungs, because the fluid does not stop mattering once the infusion starts.
Why the others are wrong
Give another 30 mL/kg of isotonic crystalloid: More fluid is tempting because the first round is the standard and the lungs are still clear. Once an adequate volume has gone in and the pressure has not followed, the remaining problem is vascular tone, and tone does not respond to volume.
Start a dopamine infusion titrated to the pressure: Dopamine is tempting because it is a familiar pressor that many services still carry. At an equivalent degree of pressure support it produces more tachydysrhythmia than norepinephrine, which is why norepinephrine is first line here.
Give push-dose epinephrine every 2 minutes during transport: Push-dose epinephrine is tempting because it works fast and is easy to prepare. It is a bridge for a short gap, not a substitute for an infusion in a patient whose hypotension is going to persist for the whole trip.
Question 3 of 10
A 58-year-old with two days of fever and abdominal pain is hypotensive and tachycardic, and a partner raises occult gastrointestinal bleeding as the cause. The skin is warm, red, and dry, and the neck veins are flat. The vital signs are BP 82/46, P 128, R 26, and SpO₂ 93% on room air. Which finding argues against the bleeding explanation?
Show the answer and rationale
Correct answer · Warm, red, dry skin rather than pale, cool, clammy skin
Hemorrhagic and septic shock overlap almost completely on the vital signs. Both give you a fast heart rate, a falling pressure, and flat neck veins, because both leave the system underfilled. The skin is where they split. A bleeding patient clamps down and turns pale, cool, and clammy, while a distributive patient runs warm, red, and dry because the vessels opened rather than emptied. When you are choosing between two conditions, the useful finding is always the one they do not share.
Why the others are wrong
A heart rate of 128 rather than a normal heart rate: A heart rate of 128 fits bleeding perfectly well. Tachycardia is the body compensating for poor perfusion, and it does that no matter which mechanism caused the poor perfusion.
Flat neck veins rather than distended neck veins: Flat neck veins are real and they matter, but they point at both candidates at once. Bleeding empties the system and sepsis enlarges the container, and either one leaves the neck veins flat.
A systolic pressure of 82 rather than a normal pressure: A systolic of 82 is exactly what significant blood loss produces. The number tells you the patient is in shock, which you already knew, and it does not tell you which kind.
Question 4 of 10
A 22-year-old is hypotensive with warm, dry, pink skin. Which single finding most strongly favors neurogenic shock over septic shock?
Show the answer and rationale
Correct answer · A heart rate of 56
Neurogenic and septic shock are both container problems, so both can hand you a hypotensive patient with warm, dry, pink skin. The difference is what the heart does about it. A cord injury interrupts the sympathetic outflow that would otherwise drive a compensatory tachycardia, so the pulse stays normal or slow while the pressure falls. That inversion is the finding worth memorizing, because every other shock category, sepsis included, answers hypotension with a fast heart rate.
Why the others are wrong
A capillary refill of 4 seconds: Delayed capillary refill tells you perfusion is poor, which is true in both conditions. It confirms shock without telling you which container problem you are looking at.
A systolic pressure of 80: A systolic of 80 is the definition of the problem, not the discriminator. Septic shock reaches that number just as readily as neurogenic shock does.
A respiratory rate of 24: A rate of 24 fits sepsis better than neurogenic shock, since a septic patient is often breathing fast to compensate for acidosis. Choosing it moves you toward sepsis, not away from it.
Question 5 of 10
An 80 kg patient with suspected sepsis has a systolic pressure of 84, clear lung sounds, and established vascular access. Which fluid plan matches the resuscitation standard for this patient?
Show the answer and rationale
Correct answer · Isotonic crystalloid toward 30 mL/kg, given in reassessed increments
Two things have to be right in a sepsis fluid order, and people usually get only one of them. The volume is weight-based, commonly starting at 30 mL/kg for the hypotensive patient, which is roughly two and a half liters for this patient. The delivery is in reassessed increments, not one uninterrupted pour. The reassessment is what makes the number safe, because it is where you find out whether the lungs are staying clear and whether perfusion is actually improving. A correct total delivered the wrong way is still the wrong order.
Why the others are wrong
One liter of isotonic crystalloid run wide open without interruption: A liter is in the right neighborhood for a first increment, so the volume is not the error. Running it wide open without interruption throws away the reassessment that tells you when to stop.
A single 250 mL bolus, then transport with no further fluid: A 250 mL increment is a legitimate way to titrate fluid where protocol calls for small steps. Stopping there in a hypotensive septic patient leaves most of the weight-based volume ungiven.
Fluid withheld until the systolic pressure falls below 70: Waiting for a systolic below 70 waits for compensation to fail completely. A systolic of 84 with suspected sepsis is already the point at which weight-based fluid is indicated.
Question 6 of 10
A 77-year-old in septic shock has received two increments of isotonic crystalloid. The mental status is unchanged, and new crackles are now audible at both bases with rising work of breathing. Which action fits these findings?
Show the answer and rationale
Correct answer · Stop the fluid and reassess before any further volume goes in
New crackles are the clearest stop sign in fluid resuscitation, because they mean the fluid you are giving has begun backing up into the lungs instead of filling the vessels. Rising work of breathing alongside them says the same thing louder. This is exactly why the volume goes in as increments with lung sounds checked between them, since a stop sign is only useful if somebody is looking for it. Stop, reassess, and decide what the patient needs next from where the patient actually is.
Why the others are wrong
Add a second line and run fluid through both sites at once: A second line gives you faster delivery and a backup route, which is worth having. Doubling the rate of delivery is the opposite of what new crackles are asking for.
Increase the fluid rate so the pressure comes up faster: Raising the rate is the instinct when the pressure is still low, and the pressure probably is still low. Pushing harder against a chest that is already filling makes the oxygenation worse without improving perfusion.
Continue the same fluid rate and recheck the lungs at the hospital: Continuing at the same rate treats the crackles as background noise. They are the one finding that tells you the next increment will land in the lungs rather than the circulation.
Question 7 of 10
A 61-year-old in septic shock remains hypotensive after adequate fluid, and norepinephrine is started per protocol. Which property of that drug addresses the primary problem in this patient?
Show the answer and rationale
Correct answer · Alpha-1 vasoconstriction that raises systemic vascular resistance
Work backward from what failed. In septic shock the vessels dilated, resistance fell, and the pressure fell with it, so the variable you need to move is tone. Alpha-1 receptors are the vasoconstriction receptors, and norepinephrine is the predominantly alpha-1 agent, which is why it is the recommended first choice once fluid alone stops correcting the hypotension. It carries modest beta-1 support along with it, and that is a side benefit rather than the reason it was chosen. Match the receptor to the failed variable and the drug choice follows.
Why the others are wrong
Beta-2 stimulation that relaxes bronchial smooth muscle: Beta-2 opens airways, which is the property you want in bronchospasm. Nothing about it addresses a dilated vascular bed, and norepinephrine has little beta-2 activity to offer anyway.
Beta-1 stimulation that raises heart rate and contractile force: Beta-1 raises rate and force, and norepinephrine does carry some. The problem left after adequate fluid is not a weak pump, it is a vascular bed that will not hold pressure around the volume already given.
Dopaminergic dilation that preserves renal and mesenteric flow: Dopaminergic effects dilate renal and mesenteric beds, and preserving kidney flow sounds appealing in a septic patient. Dilation is the wrong direction entirely when the problem is that everything is already dilated.
Question 8 of 10
A 57-year-old with septic shock is breathing 32 times a minute with clear lung sounds and an SpO₂ of 95% on a non-rebreather mask. A partner suggests rapid sequence intubation to protect the airway. Which action should the paramedic take?
Show the answer and rationale
Correct answer · Continue volume and vasopressor support and defer intubation
A rate of 32 reads like impending respiratory failure if the rate is all you look at. Look at the rest. The lungs are clear, the saturation is adequate, and the patient is moving air. That fast breathing is compensating for metabolic acidosis, and the patient is already volume-depleted underneath it. Induction removes the compensation and positive pressure drops the preload in the same moment, which is the documented mechanism behind peri-intubation arrest. Volume and vasopressor support come first, with intubation reserved for genuine failure.
Why the others are wrong
Sedate without a paralytic to slow the respiratory rate down: Sedation without paralysis feels like the gentler option, and it avoids the tube. Slowing the rate is the specific harm you are trying to avoid, since the rate is doing necessary work.
Begin positive pressure ventilation at 20 breaths per minute: Positive pressure at 20 breaths per minute delivers less minute volume than the patient is generating alone, so the carbon dioxide climbs. It also raises chest pressure in an underfilled patient and cuts venous return.
Perform rapid sequence intubation before the rate climbs further: Intubating early to get ahead of a deteriorating airway is sound thinking in many presentations. Here it removes the respiratory compensation that is holding the pH survivable while simultaneously dropping the preload.
Question 9 of 10
A 60-year-old in septic shock was breathing 34 times a minute before intubation and is now intubated. Which ventilation plan protects this patient?
Show the answer and rationale
Correct answer · Match the minute volume the patient was generating alone
That rate of 34 was not panic. It was the patient blowing off carbon dioxide to hold the pH up against a metabolic acidosis, and the tube does not make the acidosis go away. Drop the minute volume to a comfortable textbook setting and you watch the carbon dioxide climb, the pH fall further, and a patient who was compensating stop compensating. Match the ventilation to the minute volume the patient was generating on their own. Peri-intubation collapse is a real risk in these patients, so the sequence is resuscitate first, then match minute ventilation.
Why the others are wrong
Ventilate to an EtCO₂ target of 45 mmHg to correct the low value: Driving toward a normal-looking EtCO₂ treats the number as the goal. The low value reflects the acidosis and the perfusion state, and ventilating down to a normal reading means underventilating the patient.
Ventilate at 8 breaths per minute with a large tidal volume: Eight breaths with a large tidal volume attempts to recover the volume through depth. Large volumes injure septic lungs, and the minute volume still falls far short of what the patient was generating.
Ventilate at 10 breaths per minute to allow full exhalation: Ten breaths per minute is a reasonable default in most intubated adults, and allowing full exhalation matters in obstructive disease. Here it delivers roughly a third of the minute volume this patient needed to stay compensated.
Question 10 of 10
A patient in septic shock has been placed on oxygen and has an intravenous line in place. Breath sounds are clear bilaterally, and there is no increase in the work of breathing. The vital signs are BP 84/50, P 128, R 32, SpO₂ 94%. Which is the most appropriate next step?
Show the answer and rationale
Correct answer · Administer an isotonic fluid bolus per protocol and reassess
The rapid respiratory rate is compensating for the metabolic acidosis of a volume-depleted septic patient, not evidence of respiratory failure: breath sounds are clear and there is no increased work of breathing. Fluid resuscitation is the priority; induction and positive-pressure ventilation remove that compensation and drop preload at the same moment, a well-documented cause of peri-intubation collapse. Intubation is reserved for genuine respiratory failure, with ventilation matched to the patient's own minute volume if it becomes necessary.
Why the others are wrong
Perform rapid sequence intubation to protect the airway: Intubating because the rate is high removes the patient's own compensation for the metabolic acidosis, and induction plus positive-pressure ventilation can produce peri-intubation collapse in a volume-depleted septic patient; resuscitation comes first.
Assist ventilations with a BVM: Breath sounds are clear with no increased work of breathing, so there is no indication that ventilation is inadequate, substituting assisted ventilation for an effective compensatory drive removes that compensation the same way intubation would.
Administer a sedative to reduce the respiratory rate: A sedative blunts the same compensatory respiratory drive that is keeping the metabolic acidosis compensated, and it does nothing to correct the volume depletion and hypotension actually driving the tachypnea.
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