9 free Paramedic practice questions: Advanced Differential Diagnosis
These are real questions from the same bank the app draws from. Each one is written to the NREMT Paramedic content specifications and kept inside the Paramedic scope of practice. Pick an answer and you get the full rationale, including why the other three options are wrong.
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Question 1 of 9
A 55-year-old patient is found agitated and confused at home 4 days after a thyroidectomy. The skin is hot and damp, the pulse is irregular, and a family member says the patient has been vomiting since yesterday. The vital signs are BP 96/54, P 152, R 28, SpO₂ 95% on room air, and T 103.6°F. The blood glucose level is 132 mg/dL. Which piece of history most strongly supports a differential diagnosis of thyroid storm rather than sepsis?
Show the answer and rationale
Correct answer · The thyroid surgery 4 days ago
The thyroid surgery 4 days ago is the one finding that points to thyroid storm and not sepsis. Sepsis and thyroid storm share almost everything on this call. Both cause a fever, a fast pulse, and confusion. To tell them apart, you need a finding only one of them explains. Surgery is a known trigger for thyroid storm, and thyroid surgery most of all. The thyroidectomy tells you this patient had thyroid disease bad enough to need surgery. The surgery is also the stressor that set off the storm. The other findings fit both conditions. They tell you how sick this patient is, not which condition this patient has.
Why the others are wrong
The vomiting that began yesterday: Vomiting is on the list for thyroid storm and for sepsis. A finding that fits both conditions cannot tell them apart.
The temperature of 103.6°F: A temperature of 103.6°F is the most abnormal number in the question. Fever is the reason both thyroid storm and sepsis are on your list in the first place. Since both conditions cause fever, the temperature cannot narrow the list down.
The confusion and agitation at home: Confusion and agitation are the most alarming things on this call. Both thyroid storm and sepsis cause an altered mental status. The confusion does not separate them.
Question 2 of 9
A patient with a prior myocardial infarction has a regular tachycardia at 170 with a QRS the paramedic reads as borderline in width. The patient is alert, and the vital signs are BP 116/72, P 170, R 20, and SpO₂ 97% on room air. Which action carries the greatest risk of hemodynamic collapse?
Show the answer and rationale
Correct answer · Giving diltiazem to slow the ventricular response
Giving diltiazem is the action most likely to crash this patient's blood pressure. This patient has had a heart attack before, and the QRS is borderline wide. Heart muscle that is scarred from an old heart attack is a common place for ventricular tachycardia to start. That means this rhythm at 170 could be VT. Diltiazem is a calcium channel blocker that slows conduction through the AV node. VT starts below the AV node, so diltiazem does nothing to slow it. Diltiazem still relaxes the blood vessels and weakens how hard the heart squeezes. If this rhythm is VT, a blood pressure of 116/72 can drop within minutes into hypotension that does not respond to treatment. Until you know the rhythm is coming from above the ventricles, do not give an AV nodal blocker.
Why the others are wrong
Establishing intravenous access and applying the pads: Starting an IV and putting the pads on are prep steps for a fast rhythm. Neither one changes conduction or how hard the heart squeezes, so neither one can drop this patient's pressure.
Obtaining a 12-lead ECG before choosing a treatment: A 12-lead looks like a delay on a patient at 170. The 12-lead is the step that tells you whether the rhythm is truly narrow or is VT before you pick a drug. The patient is alert with a pressure of 116/72, and getting a 12-lead carries no risk.
Consulting medical control about the rhythm interpretation: Calling medical control is a good use of backup when the rhythm is hard to read. A phone call does not touch the patient's blood pressure or conduction, so calling medical control is not what risks collapse.
Question 3 of 9
A 66-year-old patient reports difficulty breathing that began during the night. Which of the following findings most strongly supports a differential diagnosis of acute cardiogenic pulmonary edema?
Show the answer and rationale
Correct answer · Crackles at both lung bases with distended neck veins
Crackles at both lung bases with distended neck veins point to acute cardiogenic pulmonary edema. The left ventricle is failing, and fluid backs up behind it into the alveoli. The crackles start at the bases of the lungs and move up as the fluid builds. The distended neck veins show that pressure is also backing up on the right side of the heart. Together, those findings put the cause of this patient's breathing trouble in the heart.
Why the others are wrong
Prolonged expiration with diffuse wheezing: points to an airflow obstruction, like COPD or asthma. Wheezing does not tell you fluid is backing up behind a failing left ventricle.
Absent breath sounds over one side of the chest: a pleural space problem, like a pneumothorax. Cardiogenic pulmonary edema gives you crackles at both bases and distended neck veins, not silence on one side.
Deep, rapid respirations with clear lung sounds: Deep, rapid breathing with clear lungs fits a metabolic problem like diabetic ketoacidosis. Clear lungs do not fit pulmonary edema. Fluid in the alveoli is what makes the crackles in cardiogenic pulmonary edema.
Question 4 of 9
The paramedic responds at 0230 to a residence for a 34-year-old patient who is unresponsive. The skin is warm and dry with no excessive secretions, and the pupils are 2 mm and minimally reactive. The vital signs are BP 106/62, P 58, R 6, and SpO₂ 88% on room air. The blood glucose level is 96 mg/dL. What is most likely causing this presentation?
Show the answer and rationale
Correct answer · Opioid toxicity
This patient has opioid toxicity. The respiratory rate is 6, and the pupils are 2 mm and minimally reactive. Opioids bind to mu receptors in the breathing centers of the brainstem. The brainstem stops responding to rising carbon dioxide, so the patient barely breathes. Opioids also act on the Edinger-Westphal nucleus, the nerve center that constricts the pupils. Both pupils shrink down to pinpoints. None of the other options gives you that very slow breathing and those pinpoint pupils together. Support the breathing with a bag-valve mask first. Then titrate naloxone until the patient breathes well enough, not until the patient is fully awake.
Why the others are wrong
Hypoglycemia: causes an altered mental status because the brain is short on glucose. Those patients are usually sweaty, tachycardic, and agitated. This patient's blood glucose is 96 mg/dL, which is normal.
Postictal state: A postictal state follows a seizure, with confusion and a slow return of consciousness. Breathing and pupils are usually close to normal. A respiratory rate of 6 with pupils at 2 mm goes far beyond a postictal state and points to a drug that slows breathing.
Acute ischemic stroke: A stroke in the pons can damage the pupil centers and the breathing centers at the same time. That gives you pinpoint pupils and very slow breathing too. A stroke that severe usually has a clear focal onset or known vascular risk factors. Nothing like that is described here, and a reversible toxic cause fits better.
Question 5 of 9
The paramedic responds on a January morning to a home where a 4-year-old patient and both parents have headache and nausea and have all become increasingly confused over the past hour. The home is heated by a fuel-burning furnace. The child is drowsy but responds to voice. The vital signs are BP 94/58, P 134, R 26, and SpO₂ 99% on room air. The blood glucose level is 92 mg/dL. What condition should the paramedic most strongly suspect as the cause of this emergency?
Show the answer and rationale
Correct answer · Carbon monoxide poisoning
This is carbon monoxide poisoning. Three people in the same home have the same headache, nausea, and confusion. It is January, and the home is heated by a fuel-burning furnace. Everyone in one home getting sick together points to the home itself instead of to one patient. Suspect carbon monoxide until proven otherwise. The SpO₂ of 99% does not rule it out. A standard pulse oximeter cannot tell carboxyhemoglobin, which is carbon monoxide stuck to hemoglobin, from oxyhemoglobin. The pulse oximeter reads normal while the tissues are not getting enough oxygen. Children get sicker sooner than adults with the same exposure, because they use more oxygen and breathe more air for their size.
Why the others are wrong
Acute viral illness: A viral illness can cause headache and nausea. A virus would not start the same symptoms at about the same time in three people who share only the same home. The shared exposure here is the fuel-burning furnace.
Food-borne illness: would fit if the family shared a meal that made them sick. Nothing here points to a shared meal. The headache and nausea are tied to the furnace during heating season.
Simple asphyxiant exposure: A simple asphyxiant exposure does not explain this symptom pattern the way carbon monoxide does. A fuel-burning furnace in winter, with the whole household sick, points to carbon monoxide until proven otherwise.
Question 6 of 9
A 44-year-old patient reports that the left side of the face "started drooping" over the past several hours. Speech is clear, grip strength is equal bilaterally, and there is no arm drift. The vital signs are BP 132/78, P 76, R 16, and SpO₂ 98% on room air. The blood glucose level is 96 mg/dL. Which additional finding would most strongly support a differential diagnosis of Bell palsy rather than stroke?
Show the answer and rationale
Correct answer · Inability to raise the affected eyebrow
Not being able to raise the eyebrow on the drooping side points to Bell palsy. The speech is clear, the grips are equal, and there is no arm drift, so the face is the only part affected. Bell palsy is a problem with the nerve to the face, not with the brain. When that nerve stops working, the whole side of the face goes weak, forehead included. A stroke is a problem in the brain. The forehead gets nerve supply from both sides of the brain, so a stroke spares the forehead. Ask the patient to raise both eyebrows. If one side of the forehead stays flat, think Bell palsy.
Why the others are wrong
Loss of sensation over the affected cheek: One-sided numbness is a stroke warning sign, the same as one-sided weakness. A numb cheek on the drooping side adds a second stroke finding to the droop. A second stroke finding points you toward a stroke, not Bell palsy.
Drooping that spares the forehead: A droop that spares the forehead is the stroke pattern. The forehead still moves because it gets nerve supply from both sides of the brain. Forehead sparing supports a stroke, not Bell palsy.
Tongue deviation toward the affected side: Tongue deviation is a stroke finding, the same as facial droop and trouble swallowing. Bell palsy is a problem with the nerve to the face. A deviated tongue adds a finding outside the face, and that points toward a stroke, not Bell palsy.
Question 7 of 9
A 7-year-old child with a known seizure disorder had a witnessed generalized seizure that stopped after 3 minutes. The paramedic arrives 10 minutes later and finds the child drowsy but arousable, with weakness of the left arm and leg. The vital signs are BP 104/62, P 118, R 22, and SpO₂ 97% on room air. The blood glucose level is 88 mg/dL. Which finding would most strongly support Todd paralysis as the cause of the weakness?
Show the answer and rationale
Correct answer · Steady improvement in strength over 30 minutes
Todd paralysis is weakness after a seizure that goes away over time. This child had a generalized seizure and now has weakness of the left arm and leg. Todd paralysis only fits if that weakness goes away, and steady improvement in strength over 30 minutes shows the weakness is going away. After a seizure, the brain cells that fired too much are worn out and stop working for a while. The weakness fades as those brain cells recover. None of the other options shows the weakness going away. You only see improvement by watching the exam over time, not from one check. Steady improvement supports watching the child and repeating neuro checks instead of treating this right away as an acute stroke. If the strength does not come back, reassess.
Why the others are wrong
Weakness confined to one side of the body: Weakness on one side matches this child's left arm and leg findings. One-sided weakness shows up in Todd paralysis and in a stroke on one side of the brain. One-sided weakness cannot tell you which one caused this child's weakness.
Deficits that were maximal at the onset: Deficits that are worst at onset describe an acute ischemic stroke. The deficit is worst the moment the vessel blocks, and then the deficit stays the same instead of improving. Todd paralysis appears after the seizure and eases over time. A deficit that was worst at onset points toward stroke.
A blood glucose level within normal limits: A normal blood glucose rules out hypoglycemia as the cause of the altered mental status and the weakness. This child's glucose is already 88 mg/dL. A normal glucose says nothing about whether the weakness is getting better or whether a stroke caused it.
Question 8 of 9
An 86-year-old patient with a history of dementia lives in an assisted-living facility. Staff state the patient has been far more confused since yesterday morning, is now seeing people who are not in the room, and drifts off to sleep in the middle of a sentence. The baseline is described as forgetful but conversational and alert throughout the day. The vital signs are BP 118/70, P 96, and R 20, and the temperature is 99.1°F. The blood glucose level is 108 mg/dL. What does this change in mental status most likely represent?
Show the answer and rationale
Correct answer · Delirium from an acute medical illness
This patient has delirium from an acute medical illness. Staff say the patient has been far more confused since yesterday morning. The patient is now seeing people who are not in the room and drifts off to sleep in the middle of a sentence. The normal baseline is forgetful but conversational and alert all day. A change this fast, with hallucinations and a level of consciousness that comes and goes, is delirium. Delirium comes from an acute problem affecting the whole brain, including the reticular activating system, which controls how awake the patient is. Common causes are an infection, hypoxia, a metabolic problem, or a new medication. Delirium is not permanent damage to the brain cells. Calling this delirium tells you to look for a cause you can treat, like a UTI, pneumonia, hypoxia, a glucose problem, or a medication. Do not write the change off as just the dementia.
Why the others are wrong
Progression of the underlying dementia: Dementia gets worse slowly, over months to years. This patient was forgetful but conversational until yesterday. A jump overnight into hallucinations and drifting off mid-sentence is too fast for dementia.
A new primary psychiatric disorder: A new psychiatric disorder can cause hallucinations. A psychiatric patient usually keeps a steady level of consciousness and can pay attention. This patient drifts in and out, and no psychiatric history is given. Psychiatric causes are only considered after medical causes are ruled out.
Normal age-related memory decline: Normal aging causes mild forgetfulness that stays the same, with no hallucinations and no change in level of consciousness. This patient has new hallucinations and drifts off to sleep mid-sentence. Those findings come from a new illness, not from aging.
Question 9 of 9
A 34-year-old patient has had 3 days of fever and burning with urination and is now too weak to stand. The skin is warm, dry, and flushed. Breath sounds are clear and equal bilaterally, and the neck veins are flat. The vital signs are BP 92/40, P 126, R 24, T 102.8°F, and SpO₂ 97% on room air. What is most likely causing the vital signs?
Show the answer and rationale
Correct answer · Widespread vasodilation lowering vascular resistance
This patient is in septic shock. The patient has had 3 days of fever and burning with urination, and the temperature is 102.8°F. The blood pressure is 92/40 and the pulse is 126. The infection has reached the bloodstream. The body releases chemicals that relax the small arteries everywhere. The vessels open wide, the resistance in them drops, and the blood pressure falls. The heart speeds up to make up for the low pressure. The skin is warm, dry, and flushed because the vessels in the skin stay open instead of clamping down. The pulse pressure is wide for the same reason. Blood loss and a failing heart do the opposite, with cool skin from clamped down vessels. The neck veins are flat and the breath sounds are clear. Nothing is backing up behind the heart, so this patient does not have a pump problem or an obstruction. These patients need fluid first and medication to tighten the vessels second.
Why the others are wrong
Loss of circulating volume from internal bleeding: Internal bleeding causes shock from lost blood volume. With blood loss, the vessels clamp down, and the skin turns pale, cool, and clammy. This patient's skin is warm, dry, and flushed.
Reduced ventricular contractility lowering cardiac output: Reduced contractility is a weak heart muscle, the cause of cardiogenic shock. A weak pump gives cool, clammy skin and signs of fluid backing up behind the heart. This patient has warm, flushed skin, flat neck veins, and clear breath sounds.
Obstruction of blood flow leaving the heart: An obstruction to blood leaving the heart would give you distended neck veins. This patient's neck veins are flat, and the skin is warm and flushed.
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