10 free Paramedic practice questions: Advanced Respiratory Emergencies
These are real questions from the same bank the app draws from. Each one is written to the NREMT Paramedic content specifications and kept inside the Paramedic scope of practice. Pick an answer and you get the full rationale, including why the other three options are wrong.
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Question 1 of 10
A 31-year-old patient with a history of asthma is sitting upright, unable to speak, with almost no air movement heard over either lung field. The skin is cyanotic and diaphoretic. The vital signs are BP 104/70, P 138, R 8 and shallow, and SpO₂ 82% on high-flow oxygen. A nebulized bronchodilator treatment is running, and the mist is drifting out of the mask rather than being drawn in. Which action is most appropriate next?
Show the answer and rationale
Correct answer · Administer intramuscular epinephrine per protocol
A nebulizer is a delivery system that depends on the patient. The drug rides in on an inhaled breath, so it only reaches bronchial smooth muscle if air is actually moving through the airway. This patient is not moving enough air to carry it anywhere, which is exactly why the mist is drifting out of the mask. Intramuscular epinephrine goes around that problem entirely by reaching the same receptors through the bloodstream. Give it while you set up for positive pressure ventilation and an advanced airway, because a silent chest with a saturation of 82% is minutes from arrest.
Why the others are wrong
Increase the nebulizer flow rate and continue the treatment: Turning up the flow produces more mist, not more inhaled drug. The limiting factor is the patient's air movement, and a higher flow rate does nothing about that.
Apply CPAP at 10 cm H₂O and reassess in five minutes: CPAP needs an alert patient who can generate an adequate tidal volume of their own. A patient who cannot speak and is breathing 8 shallow times a minute no longer meets that requirement.
Administer a second nebulized bronchodilator treatment: Repeating the treatment repeats the same failure. The first one is not reaching the airway, and a second one delivered the same way will not either.
Question 2 of 10
A 70-year-old patient with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease is in respiratory distress with an SpO₂ of 79% on room air. The vital signs are BP 148/88, P 112, R 28, and T 37.1. A crew member suggests limiting oxygen to a nasal cannula at 2 L/min out of concern for suppressing the patient's respiratory drive. Which action is most appropriate?
Show the answer and rationale
Correct answer · Apply high-concentration oxygen and titrate to 88 to 92 percent
An SpO₂ of 79% is the number that decides this: that level of hypoxemia will kill the patient long before any theoretical blunting of respiratory drive from oxygen ever could. In COPD, chronic CO₂ retention can shift some patients' drive toward a hypoxic stimulus, but this is inconsistent and never a reason to withhold oxygen from a saturation this low. The correct move is to open up with high-concentration oxygen to correct the hypoxemia, then titrate down to a target of 88 to 92 percent, which respects this patient's chronically elevated baseline CO₂ without starving the tissues of oxygen.
Why the others are wrong
Limit oxygen to 2 L/min by nasal cannula and watch mental status: Capping flow at 2 liters per minute by nasal cannula is built for a patient whose oxygen is already adequate and just needs support. An SpO₂ of 79% is severe hypoxemia, and starving it to protect a respiratory drive that may not even be blunted treats a theoretical risk over a documented one.
Give high-concentration oxygen and hold the saturation at 100 percent: Pushing oxygen to hold the SpO₂ of 79% at 100 percent gets the first move right, since this hypoxemia needs high-concentration oxygen. The target is what breaks it: this COPD patient's normal baseline sits below yours, so chasing 100 percent overshoots the need and leaves nothing to titrate against once oxygenation improves.
Delay oxygen until end-tidal carbon dioxide can be measured: Waiting on end-tidal carbon dioxide before treating oxygen answers a monitoring question, not the one in front of you. An SpO₂ of 79% needs oxygen now; capnography gets applied alongside treatment, never ahead of it.
Question 3 of 10
An intubated patient is moved from a bed to the stretcher. Immediately afterward the previously rectangular capnography waveform drops to zero and stays there. Which action is most appropriate?
Show the answer and rationale
Correct answer · Reassess the tube and the patient immediately
The waveform was a normal rectangular trace and then dropped to zero the moment the patient was moved, which is the finding that decides this. Movement is the classic trigger for tube displacement above the cords or into the esophagus, and once air is no longer moving through functioning alveoli there is no CO2 for the sensor to read. That turns this into an immediate reassessment: check tube depth, watch chest rise, auscultate the epigastrium and both lung fields, and confirm a pulse before you troubleshoot anything else.
Why the others are wrong
Increase the ventilation rate and recheck in one minute: A faster ventilation rate is the fix for a persistently low or shallow waveform, not an absent one. Here the trace is flat at zero, not diminished, so more breaths just push air into wherever the tube currently sits, worsening things if it's esophageal.
Document the change and continue the transport: Documenting and continuing belongs to a call where the waveform stays normal and confirmation only needs a note. A capnogram that flatlines right after a move is an emergency, not a charting event, so transport waits for reassessment first.
Replace the capnography sensor and recheck the tracing: Swapping the sensor fits a genuine problem: a disconnected line, condensation, or a faulty capnography module can also flatten a waveform, but the timing here, immediately after moving the patient, points straight at tube displacement, not hardware. Chasing the sensor first delays finding a dislodged airway, so the patient and tube get checked before the equipment does.
Question 4 of 10
A 78-year-old patient with a fever and a productive cough is in respiratory distress and is raising large amounts of thick sputum. Auscultation finds coarse, low-pitched sounds over the larger airways that change after a strong cough. There is no jugular venous distention and no ankle swelling. Which lung sound is described, and what produces it?
Show the answer and rationale
Correct answer · Rhonchi, produced by secretions in the larger airways
Sort these by where the noise is made and what is sitting there. Secretions in the large conducting airways rattle as air moves past them, which gives you coarse, low-pitched rhonchi that shift or clear when the patient coughs the sputum up. Fluid down in the alveoli pops those sacs open on inspiration instead, and that is crackles, which a cough does not move. Thick sputum, a productive cough, and a fever put this patient in the first group, and the missing jugular venous distention and ankle swelling argue against the fluid overload that would have produced the second.
Why the others are wrong
Wheezes, produced by narrowing of the smaller airways: Wheezes are high-pitched and musical, made by air squeezing through narrowed small airways, and a cough does not clear them the way it moves secretions.
Stridor, produced by narrowing at the level of the larynx: Stridor is a harsh inspiratory sound from upper airway narrowing at the larynx, heard over the neck rather than scattered across the large airways.
Crackles, produced by fluid filling the alveoli: Crackles come from fluid in the alveoli, which is the pulmonary edema picture. This patient has sputum in the large airways instead, and a cough that changes the sound.
Question 5 of 10
A 55-year-old patient in respiratory failure has a palpable pulse but is not moving adequate air. The crew begins positive pressure ventilations with a BVM and high-flow oxygen. At which rate should those ventilations be delivered?
Show the answer and rationale
Correct answer · One breath every 6 seconds
The deciding finding is that this patient still has a palpable pulse, so this is respiratory failure with perfusion intact, not cardiac arrest. That calls for one breath every 6 seconds, 10 per minute, delivered over about a second each, just enough to see the chest rise. Ventilating faster raises intrathoracic pressure and keeps it elevated between breaths, which drops venous return to the right heart and falls cardiac output in a patient who already has marginal perfusion. Getting this rate right protects the pulse you found; pushing past it can turn a perfusing patient into a pulseless one.
Why the others are wrong
One breath every 2 to 3 seconds: the pediatric ventilation rate for an infant or child with a pulse, working out to 20 to 30 breaths per minute. This patient is 55 years old, an adult, so that rate stacks breaths and drives intrathoracic pressure too high for the population it is meant for.
One breath every 10 seconds: gives only 6 breaths per minute, a rate too slow to clear carbon dioxide in an adult already failing to move adequate air on their own. It treats the airway as open when the real problem is inadequate ventilation that needs a faster, not slower, assisted rate.
One breath every 4 seconds: 15 breaths per minute, closer to the target than the other wrong options, easy to land on if you round the interval down. It still overshoots the rate for an adult respiratory failure patient with a pulse, keeping intrathoracic pressure elevated longer than the 6 second interval allows and cutting venous return.
Question 6 of 10
A 67-year-old patient in cardiac arrest has received several minutes of BVM ventilation, and the abdomen is now visibly distended. The crew carries both a first generation and a second generation supraglottic airway. Which feature of the second generation device most directly addresses this patient's risk?
Show the answer and rationale
Correct answer · A channel that opens into the esophagus for a gastric tube
The distended abdomen tells you that minutes of bag-mask ventilation pushed air past the lower esophageal sphincter and into the stomach instead of the lungs, and that trapped gas raises intragastric pressure, splints the diaphragm, and sets up regurgitation and aspiration. The second generation device adds a dedicated channel that opens into the esophagus, letting you pass a gastric tube through the airway itself to vent that air and drain contents away from the glottis. That decompresses the stomach, lowers the resistance to your ventilations, and cuts the aspiration risk that this specific finding created.
Why the others are wrong
A wider ventilation lumen that lowers airway resistance: A wider ventilation lumen is a real second generation feature, and it does lower the work of pushing gas through the device, but that's a ventilation efficiency benefit. It answers a question about airway resistance, not the distension and aspiration risk this patient's abdomen is showing you.
A larger cuff that seals the trachea below the cords: No supraglottic airway, first or second generation, seals the trachea below the cords; that's a description of an endotracheal tube's cuff, not how any SGA seats. The device sits above the larynx, so this segment describes the wrong category of airway entirely.
A reinforced tip that resists kinking during compressions: A reinforced tip that resists kinking is a durability feature that helps the device survive CPR and handling, but it does nothing to vent the gastric air causing this patient's distension or lower the resulting aspiration risk.
Question 7 of 10
A 38-year-old patient with extensive burns across the chest, abdomen, and both arms from a house fire has increasing stridor, soot in the mouth, and a falling SpO₂. The service authorizes rapid sequence intubation, and the crew carries both a depolarizing and a nondepolarizing paralytic. Which consideration applies to the paralytic choice in this patient?
Show the answer and rationale
Correct answer · Succinylcholine is avoided because it shifts potassium
The extensive burns across chest, abdomen, and both arms are the finding that decides this, because that much burned muscle mass drives an upregulation of extrajunctional acetylcholine receptors on the muscle membrane. Succinylcholine binds those receptors and triggers a massive, uncontrolled efflux of potassium into the bloodstream, on top of potassium already leaking from injured cells, and the resulting hyperkalemia can trigger ventricular fibrillation or asystole within seconds of the dose. That risk pushes you to a nondepolarizing agent like rocuronium or vecuronium instead, accepting a longer paralysis you have to manage rather than a rhythm you cannot fix.
Why the others are wrong
Succinylcholine is preferred because of its short duration: Succinylcholine's short duration is a genuine advantage when you need a quick return of spontaneous respiration or a fast reassessment of a difficult airway. The burned muscle across the chest, abdomen, and arms means that same dose can trigger a lethal potassium surge, so the speed advantage never gets used.
Either agent is acceptable within the first 24 hours: This option leans on the true fact that succinylcholine's hyperkalemia risk in burns builds over the first one to three days as receptors proliferate, so a very fresh burn can seem lower risk, but receptor changes start within hours, and with burns this extensive, no point in the first 24 hours is safe for this agent.
A nondepolarizing agent is avoided because of its duration: A longer duration is a real management burden, since you have to sustain sedation and ventilation until the agent wears off, but that is a workload issue, not a reason to withhold it. With this much burn surface and airway swelling already narrowing the airway, the nondepolarizing agent is the one this patient needs.
Question 8 of 10
A 5-year-old patient with massive facial trauma cannot be intubated, and ventilation with a BVM and with a supraglottic airway has both failed. The SpO₂ is 61% and falling. A surgical rescue airway is required. Which route is appropriate at this age?
Show the answer and rationale
Correct answer · A percutaneous needle cricothyrotomy
The deciding fact is the age, five years old. Below roughly age ten to twelve, the cricothyroid membrane is tiny, underdeveloped, and largely cartilage rather than the fibrous membrane you find in an adult, while the cricoid cartilage is the only complete ring holding the pediatric airway open. A scalpel through that membrane in a small child risks slicing into or destroying that ring and creating a false passage instead of an airway. A percutaneous needle cricothyrotomy avoids that structure and gets oxygen in fast. Remember it only oxygenates, it does not ventilate, so carbon dioxide climbs while the saturation recovers, and it buys time to reach a definitive airway.
Why the others are wrong
An open surgical cricothyrotomy through the membrane: An open surgical cricothyrotomy is the surgical airway drilled into you as the go-to rescue, so your hands go there by habit. In this five-year-old, the cricothyroid membrane is too small and cartilaginous to cut safely, and the cricoid cartilage below it is the child's only complete tracheal ring, so this route is reserved for older patients, not this one.
A cuffed tube passed blindly through the nose: A blind nasotracheal tube has appeal here because it seems to route around a destroyed face entirely, and it is a real technique in a spontaneously breathing adult. This patient is failing ventilation with an SpO2 of 61% and falling, is not breathing adequately on their own, and has massive facial trauma, all of which make a blind nasal pass unusable and contraindicated in a child this age.
A tracheostomy placed below the cricoid cartilage: Placing a tracheostomy below the cricoid cartilage does sound like the way to spare the ring the needle technique is also protecting. A tracheostomy is a controlled surgical procedure done in an operating room, not a maneuver you perform at the bedside on a desaturating child at 61% with seconds to act.
Question 9 of 10
A patient with a long history of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease and known carbon dioxide retention is hypoxic with an SpO₂ of 84%. A crew member expresses concern about giving supplemental oxygen because of the hypoxic drive theory. What is the most appropriate response?
Show the answer and rationale
Correct answer · Administer oxygen and titrate to a target saturation, such as 88-92%, per protocol
Hypoxic drive is not a real mechanism. It is an outdated teaching that does not hold up, and it is never a reason to deny a hypoxic patient with COPD supplemental oxygen. When the carbon dioxide level does climb on high-flow oxygen, that comes from released hypoxic pulmonary vasoconstriction and the Haldane effect, not from a lost stimulus to breathe. The appropriate approach is to give oxygen and titrate it to that patient's target saturation, commonly 88-92% in known carbon dioxide retainers per protocol, rather than either withholding it or driving the saturation to 100%.
Why the others are wrong
Administer oxygen at a fixed 2 L/min by nasal cannula without titrating to the saturation: Locking the flow at a fixed 2 L/min without titrating to the saturation is the same outdated worry in milder form; at a saturation of 84% an arbitrary ceiling can leave the patient hypoxic, and the correct approach titrates the oxygen to the target range rather than to a preset flow rate.
Administer oxygen only if the respiratory rate falls below normal: Oxygen administration in a hypoxic COPD patient is not withheld until the respiratory rate drops; the hypoxic saturation itself is the indication for treatment now.
Administer oxygen to raise the saturation to 100%: Driving the saturation all the way to 100% is not the goal in a known carbon dioxide retainer; the target is a titrated range such as 88-92%, not maximal oxygenation.
Question 10 of 10
A patient being treated for a severe asthma exacerbation with nebulized bronchodilators develops a silent chest and a decreasing level of consciousness despite ongoing treatment. What does this indicate?
Show the answer and rationale
Correct answer · Impending respiratory failure requiring escalation to assisted ventilation and advanced airway management
A wheeze is the sound of turbulent air squeezing through narrowed airways, which means a wheeze requires air movement. When the chest goes silent in a patient who is getting worse, it is not because the bronchospasm broke; it is because almost no air is moving at all. Pair that with a falling level of consciousness, which in a severe asthmatic reflects rising carbon dioxide and exhaustion, and you have impending respiratory failure. At that point the treatment has to change category. Nebulized medication only reaches the small airways if the patient can pull it there, and this patient no longer generates the tidal volume to do it. The move is to ventilate for them: BVM with a good seal, a deliberately slow rate with a long expiratory time so you do not stack breaths on top of trapped air, and advanced airway management.
Why the others are wrong
The patient is improving, so the current treatment plan should continue without any changes: A quieting chest is genuinely good news in the asthmatic who is improving, and that is the version this option describes, where wheezing fades while the patient speaks in fuller sentences, saturation rises and work of breathing eases. The question gives you the opposite marker in the same sentence: the level of consciousness is decreasing. Quiet chest with deteriorating mental status is the ominous version, and mistaking one for the other is the exact trap being tested.
The patient should be placed on CPAP instead of escalating further: CPAP is an excellent tool and the right answer for the awake, cooperative patient in distress who can maintain their own airway and follow coaching, where splinting the airways open reduces work of breathing. The disqualifier is written into the question, a decreasing level of consciousness. CPAP assists breaths the patient generates and depends on the patient protecting their own airway, and this patient can no longer be relied on for either. It is a step below what is needed, not an alternative to it.
The bronchodilator dose should simply be repeated more frequently without escalating the level of care: Repeating or stacking bronchodilators is legitimate in severe asthma, and in a patient still moving air it is exactly right. The problem is delivery rather than the drug: with a silent chest there is no tidal volume to carry the aerosol to the airways that need it. Right drug, wrong moment, and continuing a failing intervention while consciousness falls is precisely the failure mode the item is built around.
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