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10 free Paramedic practice questions: Advanced Respiratory Emergencies

These are real questions from the same bank the app draws from. Each one is written to the NREMT Paramedic content specifications and kept inside the Paramedic scope of practice. Pick an answer and you get the full rationale, including why the other three options are wrong.

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Question 1 of 10

A 31-year-old patient with a history of asthma is sitting upright, unable to speak, with almost no air movement heard over either lung field. The skin is cyanotic and diaphoretic. The vital signs are BP 104/70, P 138, R 8 and shallow, and SpO₂ 82% on high-flow oxygen. A nebulized bronchodilator treatment is running, and the mist is drifting out of the mask rather than being drawn in. Which action is most appropriate next?

Show the answer and rationale

Correct answer · Administer intramuscular epinephrine per protocol

A nebulizer is a delivery system that depends on the patient. The drug rides in on an inhaled breath, so it only reaches bronchial smooth muscle if air is actually moving through the airway. This patient is not moving enough air to carry it anywhere, which is exactly why the mist is drifting out of the mask. Intramuscular epinephrine goes around that problem entirely by reaching the same receptors through the bloodstream. Give it while you set up for positive pressure ventilation and an advanced airway, because a silent chest with a saturation of 82% is minutes from arrest.

Why the others are wrong

Increase the nebulizer flow rate and continue the treatment: Turning up the flow produces more mist, not more inhaled drug. The limiting factor is the patient's air movement, and a higher flow rate does nothing about that.

Apply CPAP at 10 cm H₂O and reassess in five minutes: CPAP needs an alert patient who can generate an adequate tidal volume of their own. A patient who cannot speak and is breathing 8 shallow times a minute no longer meets that requirement.

Administer a second nebulized bronchodilator treatment: Repeating the treatment repeats the same failure. The first one is not reaching the airway, and a second one delivered the same way will not either.

Question 2 of 10

A 70-year-old patient with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease is in respiratory distress with an SpO₂ of 79% on room air. The vital signs are BP 148/88, P 112, R 28, and T 37.1. A crew member suggests limiting oxygen to a nasal cannula at 2 L/min out of concern for suppressing the patient's respiratory drive. Which action is most appropriate?

Show the answer and rationale

Correct answer · Apply high-concentration oxygen and titrate to 88 to 92 percent

A saturation of 79% is treated, every time, in every patient. The worry your crew member raised is an old teaching that does not hold up, and hypoxia kills faster than a rising carbon dioxide ever will. What the chronic disease does change is the target. This patient's normal saturation sits below yours, so chasing 100% is both unnecessary and its own harm. Give enough oxygen to correct the hypoxia, then titrate down toward the patient's own baseline, using 88 to 92 percent as the working target when that baseline is unknown.

Why the others are wrong

Limit oxygen to 2 L/min by nasal cannula and watch mental status: Capping the oxygen at 2 L/min leaves a saturation of 79% uncorrected. Treating the hypoxia is not optional, and the reasoning behind the cap is not a real mechanism.

Give high-concentration oxygen and hold the saturation at 100 percent: Correcting the hypoxia is the right half of this answer, and the target is the wrong half. This patient's normal saturation sits below yours, so pushing the number to 100 percent overshoots what the patient needs and leaves you nothing to titrate against.

Delay oxygen until end-tidal carbon dioxide can be measured: Capnography is useful here, and it is not a reason to delay oxygen. A hypoxic patient gets oxygen while the monitoring is being applied.

Question 3 of 10

An intubated patient is moved from a bed to the stretcher. Immediately afterward the previously rectangular capnography waveform drops to zero and stays there. Which action is most appropriate?

Show the answer and rationale

Correct answer · Reassess the tube and the patient immediately

A waveform that was rectangular one minute ago and is flat the next, right after the patient was moved, is a displaced tube until you prove otherwise. That is an emergency, and there is no wait and see step. Reassess right now: look at the tube depth, watch for chest rise, listen over the epigastrium and both lung fields, and check a pulse. One confirmation on scene was never permanent confirmation, which is why the capnography stays attached and stays watched for the whole call and why you reconfirm after every patient movement.

Why the others are wrong

Increase the ventilation rate and recheck in one minute: A faster rate delivers more breaths to wherever the tube currently sits, which helps nothing if that place is the esophagus.

Document the change and continue the transport: Documenting and driving is the wait and see answer. A flat capnogram is treated as a misplaced tube, not as a charting entry.

Replace the capnography sensor and recheck the tracing: Blaming the equipment first is the assumption that gets a patient ventilated into a stomach. Rule the tube out before you rule the sensor in.

Question 4 of 10

A 78-year-old patient with a fever and a productive cough is in respiratory distress and is raising large amounts of thick sputum. Auscultation finds coarse, low-pitched sounds over the larger airways that change after a strong cough. There is no jugular venous distention and no ankle swelling. Which lung sound is described, and what produces it?

Show the answer and rationale

Correct answer · Rhonchi, produced by secretions in the larger airways

Sort these by where the noise is made and what is sitting there. Secretions in the large conducting airways rattle as air moves past them, which gives you coarse, low-pitched rhonchi that shift or clear when the patient coughs the sputum up. Fluid down in the alveoli pops those sacs open on inspiration instead, and that is crackles, which a cough does not move. Thick sputum, a productive cough, and a fever put this patient in the first group, and the missing jugular venous distention and ankle swelling argue against the fluid overload that would have produced the second.

Why the others are wrong

Wheezes, produced by narrowing of the smaller airways: Wheezes are high-pitched and musical, made by air squeezing through narrowed small airways, and a cough does not clear them the way it moves secretions.

Stridor, produced by narrowing at the level of the larynx: Stridor is a harsh inspiratory sound from upper airway narrowing at the larynx, heard over the neck rather than scattered across the large airways.

Crackles, produced by fluid filling the alveoli: Crackles come from fluid in the alveoli, which is the pulmonary edema picture. This patient has sputum in the large airways instead, and a cough that changes the sound.

Question 5 of 10

A 55-year-old patient in respiratory failure has a palpable pulse but is not moving adequate air. The crew begins positive pressure ventilations with a BVM and high-flow oxygen. At which rate should those ventilations be delivered?

Show the answer and rationale

Correct answer · One breath every 6 seconds

An adult in respiratory arrest or respiratory failure with a pulse gets one breath every 6 seconds, which works out to 10 per minute. Counting the interval out loud is worth the trouble, because ventilating too fast is the most common error in prehospital airway management and it does measurable harm. Each positive pressure breath raises intrathoracic pressure, and breaths stacked on top of each other keep it raised, which cuts venous return and cardiac output in a patient who may have little to spare. Deliver each breath over about a second, just until the chest rises.

Why the others are wrong

One breath every 2 to 3 seconds: the pediatric rate. Delivered to an adult it is roughly triple what is needed and stacks breaths quickly.

One breath every 10 seconds: 6 per minute, which leaves an adult in respiratory failure underventilated and the carbon dioxide climbing.

One breath every 4 seconds: 15 per minute, fast enough to raise intrathoracic pressure and cut venous return.

Question 6 of 10

A 67-year-old patient in cardiac arrest has received several minutes of BVM ventilation, and the abdomen is now visibly distended. The crew carries both a first generation and a second generation supraglottic airway. Which feature of the second generation device most directly addresses this patient's risk?

Show the answer and rationale

Correct answer · A channel that opens into the esophagus for a gastric tube

No supraglottic device protects the airway completely, because the device seats above the cords and never seals the trachea. What the second generation adds is a separate channel running into the esophagus, so a gastric tube can be passed through it to vent trapped air and drain stomach contents away from the airway. That matters most in exactly this patient: a full stomach, recent vomiting, or gastric distension built up by minutes of bag ventilation. Venting that distension also lowers the pressure pushing back against the diaphragm, which usually makes ventilation through the device easier.

Why the others are wrong

A wider ventilation lumen that lowers airway resistance: A wider lumen lowers the work of pushing gas through the device, which is a ventilation benefit rather than an aspiration one.

A larger cuff that seals the trachea below the cords: No supraglottic device seals the trachea. The cuff seats above the cords, which is the structural limit of the entire category.

A reinforced tip that resists kinking during compressions: A tip that resists kinking helps the device survive handling, and it does nothing about stomach contents reaching the airway.

Question 7 of 10

A 38-year-old patient with extensive burns across the chest, abdomen, and both arms from a house fire has increasing stridor, soot in the mouth, and a falling SpO₂. The service authorizes rapid sequence intubation, and the crew carries both a depolarizing and a nondepolarizing paralytic. Which consideration applies to the paralytic choice in this patient?

Show the answer and rationale

Correct answer · Succinylcholine is avoided because it shifts potassium

Succinylcholine raises serum potassium transiently in every patient who receives it. Lay that on top of a patient whose burned muscle is already releasing potassium and the shift can be enough to cause life-threatening rhythms or arrest. That is why a nondepolarizing agent such as rocuronium is the choice here: comparable intubating conditions with no potassium shift. The cost is duration, since a long-acting agent commits you to maintaining this airway yourself for the better part of an hour, which is why you open the rescue equipment and state the failure plan before the first syringe goes in.

Why the others are wrong

Succinylcholine is preferred because of its short duration: The short duration is a real advantage in other patients. In a burn patient it does not offset a potassium shift that can stop the heart.

Either agent is acceptable within the first 24 hours: There is no early safe window to work inside. The contraindication in extensive burns stands from the start.

A nondepolarizing agent is avoided because of its duration: The longer duration is a commitment to manage the airway, not a contraindication, and it is the agent this patient should receive.

Question 8 of 10

A 5-year-old patient with massive facial trauma cannot be intubated, and ventilation with a BVM and with a supraglottic airway has both failed. The SpO₂ is 61% and falling. A surgical rescue airway is required. Which route is appropriate at this age?

Show the answer and rationale

Correct answer · A percutaneous needle cricothyrotomy

Age picks the route here, and anatomy is the reason. In a young child the cricothyroid membrane is small, soft, and mostly cartilage, and the cricoid cartilage below it is the only complete ring holding the airway open. Cutting into that region risks destroying the ring and creating a false passage, so the open technique is reserved for older patients. A percutaneous needle cricothyrotomy is the accepted rescue below that threshold. Remember what it is: an oxygenation device, not a ventilation one, so the carbon dioxide climbs steadily while the saturation improves, and it is a bridge to a definitive airway rather than the destination.

Why the others are wrong

An open surgical cricothyrotomy through the membrane: The open cricothyrotomy is the surgical airway you trained on, so it is the first thing your hands reach for. The open technique risks destroying the only complete cartilage ring supporting the airway of a young child and creating a false passage, which is why it is held for older patients.

A cuffed tube passed blindly through the nose: When the face is destroyed, a route that avoids the mouth entirely has an obvious appeal. A blind nasal pass requires a spontaneously breathing patient, is contraindicated in children, and is unusable with massive facial trauma.

A tracheostomy placed below the cricoid cartilage: Going below the cricoid does sound like the way to spare the ring you are trying to protect. A tracheostomy is a surgical procedure performed in an operating room, not a field rescue for an airway failing right now.

Question 9 of 10

A patient with a long history of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease and known carbon dioxide retention is hypoxic with an SpO₂ of 84%. A crew member expresses concern about giving supplemental oxygen because of the hypoxic drive theory. What is the most appropriate response?

Show the answer and rationale

Correct answer · Administer oxygen and titrate to a target saturation, such as 88-92%, per protocol

Hypoxic drive is not a real mechanism. It is an outdated teaching that does not hold up, and it is never a reason to deny a hypoxic patient with COPD supplemental oxygen. When the carbon dioxide level does climb on high-flow oxygen, that comes from released hypoxic pulmonary vasoconstriction and the Haldane effect, not from a lost stimulus to breathe. The appropriate approach is to give oxygen and titrate it to that patient's target saturation, commonly 88-92% in known carbon dioxide retainers per protocol, rather than either withholding it or driving the saturation to 100%.

Why the others are wrong

Administer oxygen at a fixed 2 L/min by nasal cannula without titrating to the saturation: Locking the flow at a fixed 2 L/min without titrating to the saturation is the same outdated worry in milder form; at a saturation of 84% an arbitrary ceiling can leave the patient hypoxic, and the correct approach titrates the oxygen to the target range rather than to a preset flow rate.

Administer oxygen only if the respiratory rate falls below normal: Oxygen administration in a hypoxic COPD patient is not withheld until the respiratory rate drops; the hypoxic saturation itself is the indication for treatment now.

Administer oxygen to raise the saturation to 100%: Driving the saturation all the way to 100% is not the goal in a known carbon dioxide retainer; the target is a titrated range such as 88-92%, not maximal oxygenation.

Question 10 of 10

A patient being treated for a severe asthma exacerbation with nebulized bronchodilators develops a silent chest and a decreasing level of consciousness despite ongoing treatment. What does this indicate?

Show the answer and rationale

Correct answer · Impending respiratory failure requiring escalation to assisted ventilation and advanced airway management

A wheeze is the sound of turbulent air squeezing through narrowed airways, which means a wheeze requires air movement. When the chest goes silent in a patient who is getting worse, it is not because the bronchospasm broke; it is because almost no air is moving at all. Pair that with a falling level of consciousness, which in a severe asthmatic reflects rising carbon dioxide and exhaustion, and you have impending respiratory failure. At that point the treatment has to change category. Nebulized medication only reaches the small airways if the patient can pull it there, and this patient no longer generates the tidal volume to do it. The move is to ventilate for them: BVM with a good seal, a deliberately slow rate with a long expiratory time so you do not stack breaths on top of trapped air, and advanced airway management.

Why the others are wrong

The patient is improving, so the current treatment plan should continue without any changes: A quieting chest is genuinely good news in the asthmatic who is improving, and that is the version this option describes, where wheezing fades while the patient speaks in fuller sentences, saturation rises and work of breathing eases. The question gives you the opposite marker in the same sentence: the level of consciousness is decreasing. Quiet chest with deteriorating mental status is the ominous version, and mistaking one for the other is the exact trap being tested.

The patient should be placed on CPAP instead of escalating further: CPAP is an excellent tool and the right answer for the awake, cooperative patient in distress who can maintain their own airway and follow coaching, where splinting the airways open reduces work of breathing. The disqualifier is written into the question, a decreasing level of consciousness. CPAP assists breaths the patient generates and depends on the patient protecting their own airway, and this patient can no longer be relied on for either. It is a step below what is needed, not an alternative to it.

The bronchodilator dose should simply be repeated more frequently without escalating the level of care: Repeating or stacking bronchodilators is legitimate in severe asthma, and in a patient still moving air it is exactly right. The problem is delivery rather than the drug: with a silent chest there is no tidal volume to carry the aerosol to the airways that need it. Right drug, wrong moment, and continuing a failing intervention while consciousness falls is precisely the failure mode the item is built around.

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