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10 free Paramedic practice questions: Advanced Obstetric and Neonatal Emergencies

These are real questions from the same bank the app draws from. Each one is written to the NREMT Paramedic content specifications and kept inside the Paramedic scope of practice. Pick an answer and you get the full rationale, including why the other three options are wrong.

Work through all 10, then move on to the next topic. When you want the full picture, the free Paramedic diagnostic covers every topic in one sitting. No account needed for any of it.

Question 1 of 10

A 34-year-old patient at 35 weeks gestation has had a headache and blurred vision all day. During transport the patient has a generalized tonic clonic seizure that lasts 90 seconds. After the seizure the vital signs are BP 168/104, P 104, R 16, and SpO₂ 95% on room air. Which condition does this patient now have?

Show the answer and rationale

Correct answer · Eclampsia, since the definition adds a seizure to preeclampsia

Eclampsia is preeclampsia plus a seizure that nothing else explains. That is the whole definitional difference, so the event that moves a patient across the line is the seizure itself and never the number on the cuff. A pressure of 168 systolic does mark severe features, but a patient can carry severe features for days without ever seizing, and a patient can seize at a pressure that looks almost ordinary. Hold onto the definition and the field plan follows: left lateral positioning, a dim and quiet compartment, suction set up and within reach, magnesium sulfate per protocol, and rapid transport to a facility that can deliver the fetus, since delivery is the only definitive treatment.

Why the others are wrong

A new seizure disorder unmasked by the demands of pregnancy: A first seizure in an adult does deserve a broad differential, and pregnancy is a physiologic stress. A seizure after 20 weeks in a patient with a headache and visual disturbance is eclampsia until something else explains it, and you would be reaching past the obvious cause to call it anything else.

Preeclampsia with severe features, since the pressure is above 160 systolic: The systolic is genuinely in the severe range, and severe features do change the urgency of the call. Severe features describe how bad the preeclampsia is, and once a seizure happens the diagnosis moves to eclampsia regardless of how high or low the pressure sits.

Gestational hypertension, since the pressure rose only late in pregnancy: Hypertension that appears late in pregnancy is a real category and the timing fits. Gestational hypertension is hypertension without the end organ findings, and a patient with a headache, visual change, and now a seizure has moved well past that label.

Question 2 of 10

A 26-year-old patient at 39 weeks gestation is on the floor of a second-floor apartment with contractions two minutes apart lasting about a minute and an involuntary urge to push. The fetal head is visible at the vaginal opening during each contraction. The hospital is nine minutes away. Which action should the paramedic take?

Show the answer and rationale

Correct answer · Prepare to deliver on scene, laying out the obstetric kit and newborn equipment

Crowning is the finding that decides this, and every other finding in the room agrees with it. The head is visible at the opening during contractions, the contractions are two minutes apart, and the urge to push is involuntary, which together mean the delivery is happening here. Nine minutes of driving does not shorten a delivery that has already started, and moving a patient in the middle of one can leave you delivering on a stairwell. Open the kit, set up for the newborn at the same time you set up for the mother, and note the time of birth as it happens, since APGAR is timed from it and cannot be reconstructed afterward. Checking for crowning means looking. A digital vaginal examination is not an EMS procedure at any level, with two deliberate exceptions: lifting a presenting part off a prolapsed cord, and holding the vaginal wall off the face of a breech newborn whose head has not delivered.

Why the others are wrong

Hold gentle pressure against the head to keep it back until arrival at the hospital: Counter-pressure with a flat palm is a real part of assisting a delivery, which is what makes this tempting. That palm is there so the head does not deliver explosively and tear the perineum. Holding the head back against a contraction is a different act, and the rule on it is flat: never.

Move the patient to the ambulance and transport her on her left side instead: Transporting on her left side is exactly right for a patient in labor who is not crowning, so the technique is not the problem here, the timing is. With the head visible at the opening you would be carrying her down a flight of stairs during the delivery itself.

Perform a digital vaginal examination to confirm that the cervix is fully dilated: Wanting to confirm full dilation feels like the careful thing to do before committing to a field delivery. You already have the finding that settles it, since a head visible at the opening means the cervix is out of the way, and a digital examination is not an EMS procedure outside of a prolapsed cord and a breech head that has not delivered.

Question 3 of 10

A term newborn delivered three minutes ago has a strong cry, good tone, and a heart rate of 150. A pulse oximeter on the right wrist reads 74%. The newborn is dry, wrapped, and pink centrally with cyanotic hands and feet. Which action should the paramedic take?

Show the answer and rationale

Correct answer · Continue routine care, since this saturation is on target at three minutes

A newborn does not and should not reach adult saturations at birth. The fetal circulation is still transitioning, so the accepted targets climb as the minutes pass: roughly 60 to 65% at one minute, 70 to 75% at three minutes, 80 to 85% at five minutes, and 85 to 95% by ten minutes of life. A reading of 74% at three minutes sits inside the expected band, and the rest of this newborn agrees with it, since a strong cry, good tone, and a heart rate of 150 are everything you want. Reading a newborn number against adult normals is the most common way to over treat a newborn who is transitioning exactly as expected. Put the probe on the right hand or wrist so the reading is preductal, check the number against the clock, and treat the newborn rather than the percentage.

Why the others are wrong

Give blow by oxygen until the saturation reaches the adult normal range: A saturation of 74% is a treat now number in any other patient, so the reflex is a strong one and it comes from a good habit. A newborn in the first minutes of life is the exception, and oxygen given against an adult target over treats a transition that is going normally.

Move the oximeter to a foot, since a hand reading underestimates the true value: Site selection genuinely matters on a newborn, so questioning the probe is the right kind of thinking. The right hand is preductal and is the correct site, while a foot reads postductal and runs lower in the first minutes, so moving the probe would make the number look worse rather than truer.

Begin positive pressure ventilation, since the saturation is below 90%: Escalating when a saturation is that low feels safe, and ventilation is the right answer for a newborn who needs it. Ventilation is driven by apnea, inadequate effort, or a heart rate below 100, and this newborn has a strong cry and a rate of 150.

Question 4 of 10

A newborn has a heart rate of 48 after 30 seconds of positive pressure ventilation that produces good chest rise. The paramedic starts chest compressions coordinated with ventilations at a 3 to 1 ratio and increases the oxygen concentration to 100%. When should the heart rate be checked again?

Show the answer and rationale

Correct answer · After 60 seconds of coordinated compressions and ventilations

The newborn algorithm changes its reassessment clock once compressions begin, and this is the number most often carried over wrong. Ventilation gets 30 seconds before you look again. Coordinated compressions and ventilations get 60 seconds, because a newborn heart needs a full minute of perfusion at 3 compressions to 1 ventilation before the rate can be expected to respond. Checking at 30 seconds tempts you to abandon something that was about to work, and it costs compressions to do the checking. If the rate is still below 60 at that 60 second check, the next branch point is epinephrine rather than simply continuing compressions unchanged, and a newborn who still does not respond should raise the question of hypovolemia rather than another round on the same interval.

Why the others are wrong

After 2 minutes, matching the rhythm check interval used in older children: Two minutes is the familiar cycle from older children and adults, so it is an easy habit to import. Newborn resuscitation reassesses far more often than that, and two minutes would leave a newborn on the wrong branch of the algorithm for far too long.

After 15 seconds, since a newborn tolerates almost no time at that rate: The urge to look quickly when a newborn is this sick is understandable, and short pauses feel harmless. Fifteen seconds is not long enough for coordinated compressions to change anything, and every check interrupts the compressions that are doing the work.

After 30 seconds, the same interval used before compressions were started: Thirty seconds is a real interval in this algorithm, which is exactly why it gets carried forward. It belongs to the ventilation step before compressions started, and once compressions are running the interval doubles.

Question 5 of 10

A newborn is delivered through thick greenish amniotic fluid. After the initial steps the newborn is limp and apneic with a heart rate of 84. Which action should the paramedic take next?

Show the answer and rationale

Correct answer · Begin positive pressure ventilation with a bag mask sized for a newborn

Greenish or brownish fluid means meconium, and the old reflex was to clear the airway below the cords before anything else. That step is gone. A vigorous newborn born through meconium gets routine care, and a newborn who is not vigorous gets the standard initial steps and then positive pressure ventilation. Routine tracheal suctioning is not performed regardless of how the newborn looks. The reason the guidance changed is exactly the error the other options make: reaching for a meconium specific maneuver costs the seconds that ventilation needed. Read this newborn by the same branch points as any other. Limp and apneic with a heart rate of 84 is below 100 and not breathing, so the answer is ventilation at 40 to 60 breaths per minute, judged by chest rise and by the heart rate coming up.

Why the others are wrong

Suction the mouth and nose repeatedly until the returning fluid runs clear: Clearing visible fluid from the mouth and nose is part of the initial steps and it is not wrong to have done it once. Repeated passes chase fluid that is already below the cords, they add vagal stimulation that can slow the heart further, and they push ventilation further away.

Suction the trachea through an endotracheal tube before ventilating: Tracheal suctioning for meconium was taught for years and it still feels like the thorough thing to do. It is no longer part of the algorithm at any level of vigor, and setting up for it delays the ventilation this newborn needs right now.

Stimulate the newborn again and recheck the heart rate in 30 seconds: Stimulation is part of the initial steps and it is what starts most newborns breathing, so repeating it feels harmless. The initial steps are already done here, and a newborn who stays apneic after them has told you stimulation is not going to work, which is the point at which ventilation begins.

Question 6 of 10

A newborn delivered 20 minutes ago to a patient with diabetes is jittery with poor tone and a weak cry. The blood glucose level is 28. The newborn is warm, dry, breathing adequately, and has a heart rate of 148. Which treatment is indicated?

Show the answer and rationale

Correct answer · 10% dextrose at 2 mL per kilogram through a vascular line

A blood glucose below roughly 45 in a newborn is hypoglycemia, and the newborn of a diabetic mother is the classic setup. Fetal insulin production ran high against the mother's glucose supply, and that supply was cut the moment the cord was clamped, so the insulin is still working with nothing left to work on. Jitteriness, poor tone, a weak cry, poor feeding, and lethargy are the signs, and none of them is specific, which is why you check a glucose on any newborn who is off. The treatment is the part worth memorizing. Newborns get dilute 10% dextrose at about 2 mL per kilogram, never the 25% or 50% preparations used in older children and adults, because a hypertonic bolus into a newborn carries a real risk of harm including bleeding into the ventricles from the rapid osmotic shift.

Why the others are wrong

50% dextrose at 1 mL per kilogram through a vascular line: This is the adult preparation and the adult reflex, and the dose looks conservative because the volume is small. The concentration is what harms a newborn rather than the volume, and 50% is the most hypertonic option on the list.

25% dextrose at 2 mL per kilogram through a vascular line: The 25% preparation is the one used in older children, so it feels like the pediatric answer and the dose is right for a child. A newborn is not simply a small child here, and the concentration drops again to 10% for the first weeks of life.

Glucose gel rubbed into the cheek, then a repeat glucose check: Glucose gel avoids needing a line and it does work in an older patient who can protect the airway. A newborn this depressed does not reliably swallow, absorption through the cheek is slow and unpredictable, and the glucose needs correcting now.

Question 7 of 10

A 29-year-old patient who is 34 weeks pregnant has a generalized tonic-clonic seizure lasting 90 seconds. A family member states the patient has had a headache and blurred vision for 2 days. The seizure has stopped, and the patient is unresponsive with snoring respirations. The vital signs are BP 178/112, P 96, R 8 and shallow, and SpO₂ 88% on room air. What should the paramedic do after opening the airway and beginning positive pressure ventilations?

Show the answer and rationale

Correct answer · Administer magnesium sulfate intravenously

A generalized seizure after 20 weeks of gestation in a patient with a BP of 178/112 and two days of headache and blurred vision is eclampsia until proven otherwise. Those visual and neurologic complaints are the cerebral warning signs of severe preeclampsia, and the seizure is the event they were warning about. Magnesium sulfate is the first-line agent both for terminating the eclamptic seizure and for preventing the next one, it raises the seizure threshold and stabilizes the neuronal membrane, and it is a paramedic-scope medication; benzodiazepines are the backup if magnesium is unavailable or seizures persist through it. Airway and ventilation come first, which is why the question already has you opening the airway and ventilating a patient with snoring respirations of 8 and a saturation of 88%. Round the care out with left lateral recumbent positioning to lift the uterus off the vena cava, a dim quiet environment, and rapid transport, because the definitive treatment for eclampsia is delivery.

Why the others are wrong

Administer a normal saline fluid bolus: A saline bolus is the treatment when a blood pressure problem is caused by too little volume, as in hemorrhage, dehydration, or sepsis. This patient's problem is the opposite, a pressure of 178/112 in a syndrome defined by diffuse capillary leak and third spacing, so aggressive fluid pushes toward pulmonary edema without touching the seizure. Volume is not the deficit here, and the key treats the thing that is actively injuring the brain.

Administer furosemide to reduce the blood pressure: Furosemide has a role in pregnancy only for frank pulmonary edema, not as a way to lower blood pressure in preeclampsia. Diuresing a patient whose intravascular volume is already depleted by capillary leak drops placental perfusion and harms the fetus, and the blood pressure is not what is seizing the patient. Even when antihypertensive therapy is warranted in severe preeclampsia, magnesium still goes first to control the seizure, which is what the key does.

Administer 50% dextrose intravenously: Dextrose is the answer when a seizure or altered mental status is caused by hypoglycemia, and checking a glucose on any seizing patient is sound practice. Nothing points that way here, because the two-day headache, the visual disturbance, the new hypertension, and the gestational age all converge on eclampsia. Giving dextrose to a normoglycemic patient treats a condition she does not have while the eclampsia continues untreated.

Question 8 of 10

A newborn delivered 45 minutes ago to a patient with poorly controlled gestational diabetes is jittery with a weak cry and poor tone. The newborn has been dried and warmed and is breathing without difficulty. The pulse rate is 148 and the SpO₂ is 96%. The blood glucose level is 24 mg/dL. What should the paramedic administer?

Show the answer and rationale

Correct answer · Administer 10% dextrose intravenously

A newborn of a mother with poorly controlled gestational diabetes spends the pregnancy exposed to high maternal glucose and responds by producing high levels of its own insulin. Clamping the cord cuts off the maternal glucose supply, but the hyperinsulinemia does not switch off with it, so the glucose falls, and a neonate's version of neuroglycopenic symptoms is jitteriness, a weak cry, and poor tone, which is exactly this 45-minute-old newborn at 24 mg/dL. Dextrose is the treatment and the concentration is the entire point of the item: neonates receive a dilute 10% solution, because the concentrated hypertonic preparations used in adults injure small peripheral veins, can provoke a rebound insulin surge and a second dip, and carry a risk of intraventricular hemorrhage in the fragile neonatal brain. The airway and circulation are already fine here, with unlabored breathing, a pulse of 148, and a saturation of 96%, so the glucose is the isolated deficit. A symptomatic hypoglycemic newborn is treated now, not rechecked later.

Why the others are wrong

Administer glucagon intramuscularly: Glucagon works by mobilizing stored glycogen from the liver, which makes it a reasonable choice in an adult diabetic with no vascular access and a liver with stores to release. Neonates have minimal glycogen reserves to begin with, and this one has been drawing on them since delivery against its own high insulin level, so there is very little for glucagon to mobilize. The key supplies glucose directly instead of asking a depleted liver to produce it.

Administer 50% dextrose intravenously: Dextrose 50% is the adult concentration, the right drug at the wrong strength, which is what makes it the most tempting distractor in the set. That hypertonicity is precisely what damages small vessels, risks intraventricular hemorrhage, and can provoke rebound hypoglycemia in a hyperinsulinemic infant. Same molecule, same route, five times the concentration the key uses, and the concentration is the thing being tested.

Administer oral glucose gel: Oral glucose gel is used for a hypoglycemic patient who is awake and able to protect their own airway, and buccal absorption is real. A 45-minute-old newborn with poor tone and a weak cry cannot reliably swallow or protect an airway, so gel risks aspiration and delivers an unpredictable dose. The key uses a route that puts a known quantity of glucose into the circulation immediately, which is what a symptomatic newborn needs.

Question 9 of 10

A 28-year-old patient who is 37 weeks pregnant and received no prenatal care delivers a newborn in the ambulance. The newborn is vigorous and crying and has been dried and warmed. The patient states that strong contractions are continuing, and the abdomen remains large and firm with what feels like a second fetus. The placenta has not delivered. What should the paramedic do next?

Show the answer and rationale

Correct answer · Clamp and cut the first cord before the second delivery

An undiagnosed twin pregnancy is a realistic field surprise when there has been no prenatal care, and continuing strong contractions with a still-large firm abdomen after one delivery is the signal. The immediate priority is the first newborn's umbilical cord. Twins may share placental circulation, and while the first cord is open the second twin's delivery and the placental changes that accompany it can allow the first newborn to lose blood back through that cord. Clamping in two places and cutting between the clamps closes that route before the second delivery begins. After that the paramedic prepares for a second delivery and a second newborn needing its own assessment and warming, calls for additional resources, and anticipates postpartum hemorrhage, which is more likely after a multiple birth because the overdistended uterus contracts less well.

Why the others are wrong

Wait for the placenta to deliver before the second newborn: This inverts the normal sequence. In a twin birth the second newborn delivers before the placenta does, and waiting for a placenta that will not come until both are out wastes the interval in which the first cord should have been secured.

Apply firm downward pressure on the abdomen: Downward pressure on the abdomen, sometimes described as fundal pressure, is not a field technique for delivering a second twin. It risks uterine injury, placental separation, and worsening of an undiagnosed malpresentation, and the second twin frequently is not in a head-down position.

Pull gently on the first cord to deliver the placenta: Traction on the cord to hurry the placenta is dangerous at any delivery and specifically risks pulling the uterus inside out. It is worse here, because the placenta is still supporting an undelivered second twin, so the delivery sequence would be disrupted at the second newborn's expense.

Question 10 of 10

A newborn delivered at term in the ambulance required positive pressure ventilations for the first 2 minutes after birth for a heart rate of 90 and poor respiratory effort, with adequate chest rise throughout. Three minutes later the heart rate has risen to 150. The trunk is now pink, but the hands and feet remain slightly blue, and the newborn has not yet cried. Why does the paramedic continue the current ventilation and oxygen support rather than escalate to a different intervention?

Show the answer and rationale

Correct answer · Heart rate response is what determines whether current support is adequate

The heart rate is the measure the paramedic relies on to judge whether resuscitation is working, and this one has risen from 90 to 150 with chest rise adequate the whole time, which is the sign that the current ventilation and oxygen support is doing its job. That's why the paramedic continues the current ventilation and oxygen support and keeps reassessing the heart rate rather than reacting to a color finding that trails behind it.

Why the others are wrong

Peripheral cyanosis by itself means more supplemental oxygen is needed: You'd pick this if blue hands and feet by themselves meant more oxygen was needed. Color lagging in the hands and feet while the trunk is already pink is a peripheral finding, and it's the heart rate response, not the color of the extremities, that tells the paramedic whether the current support is adequate.

A heart rate above 100 means the paramedic can stop reassessing heart rate: You'd pick this if a single favorable number felt like a stopping point. A good heart rate doesn't end reassessment. This newborn also hasn't yet cried or begun breathing on its own, so support continues and the trend keeps being watched.

Peripheral cyanosis after ventilation means chest compressions are indicated: You'd pick this if any residual cyanosis felt like a reason to escalate. Compressions are tied to a heart rate below 60 that isn't responding to ventilation, and a rate of 150 is nowhere near that threshold, so cyanosis by itself doesn't justify adding compressions.

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