10 free EMT practice questions: Cardiovascular Emergencies & Cardiac Arrest
These are real questions from the same bank the app draws from. Each one is written to the NREMT EMT content specifications and kept inside the EMT scope of practice. Pick an answer and you get the full rationale, including why the other three options are wrong.
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Question 1 of 10
EMTs arrive to find a bystander performing chest compressions on an adult in cardiac arrest. The bystander's hands are positioned high on the chest, near the collarbones, rather than on the lower half of the sternum. What should the EMT do?
Show the answer and rationale
Correct answer · Take over compressions with correct hand placement on the lower half of the sternum, minimizing the pause
These compressions are in the wrong spot. The bystander's hands are high on the chest, near the collarbones. Pushing there presses on the top of the sternum, which sits above the ventricles. Compressions in that spot move very little blood and can break the ribs and collarbones. The hands belong on the lower half of the sternum, right over the ventricles. Pushing there squeezes blood out of the heart with each compression. Take over compressions with your hands in the right place. Plan the switch so the pause only lasts a couple of seconds.
Why the others are wrong
Deliver two ventilations with a BVM before making any change to the compressions: Ventilations are part of what you bring to this scene. A bystander doing compressions only needs the airway managed and breaths added at 30:2. Fixing the compressions comes first, because these compressions are not moving blood. Hands over the top of the sternum move very little blood no matter how much oxygen the patient gets. Breaths join in once good compressions are running.
Allow the bystander to continue compressing in the same position until the automated external defibrillator (AED) is ready: Keeping compressions going without a long pause is the right idea. That's why the switch in option C is planned to take only a couple of seconds. Compressions this high on the chest move almost no blood, so they are not worth protecting. Waiting for the AED means minutes of almost no blood flow.
Instruct the bystander to slide the hands lower on the sternum without taking over compressions: Coaching a bystander in place works when the bystander is already doing good compressions and only needs a small fix. Coaching also avoids a pause. Once trained EMTs are on scene, the EMTs take over the most important job instead of handing it off. A bystander who has been doing compressions will get tired, and the rate and depth will slip.
Question 2 of 10
A 19-year-old patient who is tall and thin reports sudden, sharp pain on one side of the chest that started at rest, without any injury. The pain worsens with deep breathing. Breath sounds are decreased on the affected side and clear on the other side. The patient appears anxious but is not in severe distress. The vital signs are BP 122/78 mmHg, P 108/min, and R 22/min. Which condition should the EMT most strongly suspect?
Show the answer and rationale
Correct answer · Spontaneous pneumothorax
This patient has a spontaneous pneumothorax. A young, tall, thin patient is the classic build for a spontaneous pneumothorax. A small blister on the surface of the lung, called a bleb, pops on its own with no injury. Air leaks into the space around the lung on that side, and that lung partly collapses. That's why the pain is sudden, sharp, on one side, and worse with a deep breath. The breath sounds are decreased on the affected side and clear on the other side. Air around one lung makes the breath sounds quieter on that side only. The pulse of 108 and respirations of 22 with a normal blood pressure fit a simple pneumothorax that has not turned into a tension pneumothorax. The pain started at rest with no injury, and that is what makes the pneumothorax spontaneous.
Why the others are wrong
Pulmonary embolism: A pulmonary embolism also causes sudden chest pain that is worse with breathing, along with a fast heart rate and fast breathing. A pulmonary embolism is a clot in the blood vessels of the lung, not air around the lung. Air still moves into both lungs, so the breath sounds stay equal. A pulmonary embolism also usually comes with a risk factor, like being immobile, a long trip, recent surgery, or a swollen, tender calf. This question gives you none of those. The decreased breath sounds on one side point to the pneumothorax.
Acute coronary syndrome: usually pressure or heaviness that does not change with breathing, in a patient with cardiac risk factors. Acute coronary syndrome does not change the breath sounds on one side. This patient is 19, the pain gets worse with a deep breath, and one side of the chest is quiet. Those are signs of a lung problem.
Musculoskeletal chest wall pain: Chest wall pain fits when there is a cause like a fall, heavy lifting, or a hard cough. The pain also gets worse when you press on the spot. This pain started at rest without any injury, and no tenderness is described. Chest wall pain also never decreases the breath sounds.
Question 3 of 10
An adult patient is in cardiogenic shock with signs of pulmonary edema, including crackles in both lung bases and difficulty breathing. The patient is conscious and breathing adequately on high-flow oxygen. Which positioning is most appropriate for this patient during transport?
Show the answer and rationale
Correct answer · Sitting upright, position of comfort
This patient is in cardiogenic shock with pulmonary edema. The heart is failing as a pump, so blood backs up into the lungs. Fluid leaks out of the small vessels in the lungs and into the air sacs. That's why you hear crackles in both lung bases and the patient has difficulty breathing. The patient is conscious and breathing adequately on high-flow oxygen. Positioning is the next thing you can do to help. Sit the patient upright in whatever position is comfortable. Sitting up lets gravity keep some blood in the lower body and out of the chest. Less blood comes back to a heart that already cannot pump what it has. Sitting up also lets the diaphragm drop down away from the abdomen, so each breath takes less work. Laying a shock patient flat helps when the patient has lost volume. In cardiogenic shock the volume is there, and the pump is what failed. Moving more blood to the chest does not help the heart pump, and more fluid backs up into the lungs. Keep watching mental status and breathing. If either one gets worse, this patient needs assisted ventilations, not a new position.
Why the others are wrong
Supine with the legs elevated: Supine with the legs raised is used for hypovolemic or distributive shock. In those patients, moving blood from the legs back to the core helps, because the vessels are underfilled or too wide open. The crackles tell you the lungs are already getting more fluid than the left ventricle can pump forward. Raising the legs sends more blood to the chest. The pulmonary edema gets worse, and the pump failure does not improve.
Full Trendelenburg position: Full Trendelenburg tips the patient head down and sends even more blood back to the chest. Full Trendelenburg is mostly no longer used, even in hypovolemic shock. With the head down, the abdominal organs also push up on the diaphragm. The pressure on the diaphragm makes breathing harder for a patient who is already struggling.
Left lateral recumbent position: Left lateral recumbent is the position for protecting the airway in a patient who is vomiting or cannot handle secretions. Left lateral also takes pressure off the vena cava in late pregnancy. This patient is conscious and breathing adequately, so the patient is protecting their own airway. The fluid causing the problem is in the air sacs of the lungs, not in the throat. Lying on the side gives up the benefit of sitting upright and does nothing for the fluid in the lungs.
Question 4 of 10
An adult patient's chest discomfort resolves completely after the EMT assists with one dose of the patient's prescribed sublingual nitroglycerin. Which statement about this response is most accurate?
Show the answer and rationale
Correct answer · Nitroglycerin also relieves some noncardiac pain, so relief alone does not confirm or rule out a cardiac cause
Relief after nitroglycerin does not tell you whether the pain is cardiac. Nitroglycerin relaxes smooth muscle. Smooth muscle is not only in the coronary arteries. Smooth muscle also lines blood vessels all over the body and the wall of the esophagus. That's why pain from esophageal spasm can ease after a dose, the same way angina does. Relief points both ways, so relief cannot confirm or rule out a cardiac cause. Keep assessing this patient fully. Recheck the vital signs, because nitroglycerin dilates blood vessels and can drop the blood pressure. Set the transport priority from the whole presentation, not from whether the pain went away.
Why the others are wrong
Relief after nitroglycerin shows the medication worked, so repeat vital signs can wait until arrival at the hospital: Giving a medication never lowers the need to reassess. Nitroglycerin dilates veins and arteries and can cause hypotension. A patient who just took nitroglycerin needs the vital signs rechecked because of that dose. Waiting until the hospital means nobody checks the pressure during the time hypotension would show up.
Relief after nitroglycerin confirms the chest discomfort was cardiac in origin, since only cardiac pain responds to it: Nitroglycerin does relieve angina by improving the balance of oxygen supply and demand in the heart muscle. The same smooth muscle relaxation also relieves chest pain that does not come from the heart. Relief alone does not prove the heart is the source.
Relief after nitroglycerin rules out a life-threatening cause and supports lowering the transport priority: A myocardial infarction that is still evolving can have pain-free periods while heart muscle keeps dying. This patient also has a prescription for nitroglycerin, which means known heart disease. Less pain does not mean less danger. The transport priority comes from the presentation and the risk, not from the pain level.
Question 5 of 10
An adult patient has just achieved return of spontaneous circulation after cardiac arrest and remains unresponsive with unstable vital signs during transport. What is the appropriate reassessment interval for this patient?
Show the answer and rationale
Correct answer · Every 5 minutes, given the patient's unstable and critical condition
Reassess this patient every 5 minutes. The patient just got return of spontaneous circulation, or ROSC, and is still unresponsive with unstable vital signs. Right after cardiac arrest, the heart is still unstable. The heart muscle went without blood flow and just got blood flow back. The heart muscle can be stunned, and rhythm problems can start. Either one can send the patient back into cardiac arrest with almost no warning. An unstable patient gets reassessed every 5 minutes, not the standard 15. Checking that often lets you catch a falling blood pressure, a new rhythm, or a change in mental status early. Catching those changes early gives you time to act before the patient arrests again during transport.
Why the others are wrong
Every 15 minutes, the standard interval used for all patients following a cardiac event: Every 15 minutes is the right interval for a stable patient, and you will use it all the time. The interval depends on how stable the patient is, not on what kind of event happened. This patient is unresponsive with unstable vital signs.
Once at the start of transport and again immediately before arrival at the hospital: Checking once at the start and once before arrival might match an uneventful transport of a stable patient. Ongoing assessment is a repeating cycle of mental status, airway, breathing, circulation, and vital signs. Two checks at the ends of the trip are not enough for a patient who can go back into cardiac arrest.
Continuously, but only if the cardiac monitor shows visible changes in the electronic waveform: A cardiac monitor belongs on this patient, and the word "only" is what makes option D wrong. A monitor shows rate and rhythm. A monitor will not show a drop in mental status, cool, clammy skin, or inadequate breathing. Waiting for the waveform to change misses everything your timed, hands-on reassessment is supposed to catch.
Question 6 of 10
An elderly patient is found dead at home. The body is cold to the touch, with fixed purple discoloration of the lower back and underside of the arms. There is stiffening of the jaw and neck. Should the EMT initiate CPR?
Show the answer and rationale
Correct answer · No, because the patient displays obvious signs of death and CPR would be futile
This patient has obvious signs of death, and you do not start CPR. The fixed purple color on the lower back and the underside of the arms is dependent lividity. The stiff jaw and neck are rigor mortis. Dependent lividity and rigor mortis are recognized obvious signs of death nationally. When you find them, you withhold CPR no matter how old the patient is.
Why the others are wrong
Yes, because CPR must be started on any pulseless patient regardless of other findings: CPR is right for a pulseless patient who has no obvious signs of death. This patient has dependent lividity and rigor mortis. With those present, you do not attempt resuscitation, even though there is no pulse.
No, because resuscitation is rarely successful in patients of this advanced age: Age never decides whether you start CPR. The lividity and rigor mortis decide it here, and CPR would be withheld at any age.
Yes, because only a physician at the hospital can legally pronounce the patient dead: You do not need a physician at the hospital to pronounce this patient before you withhold CPR. With obvious signs of death present, CPR is not started in the field at all. Pronouncing death follows your local protocol, and that process does not require a resuscitation that cannot work.
Question 7 of 10
A 68-year-old diabetic patient called 911 for vague nausea and fatigue with no chest pain. Vitals are stable except for mild diaphoresis. Which of the following is the most appropriate EMT action?
Show the answer and rationale
Correct answer · Treat as a possible cardiac event, apply oxygen if hypoxic, and transport with monitoring
This patient may be having a heart attack. This patient is 68 and diabetic, with nausea, fatigue, and diaphoresis and no chest pain. Years of high blood glucose damage the small nerves that carry pain, including the nerves that carry pain from the heart. That's why a diabetic patient can have a heart attack with no chest pain at all. What you see instead is nausea, sudden fatigue, weakness, and diaphoresis. Diaphoresis in a 68-year-old with no exertion, no fever, and no other cause is a warning sign on its own. Work this call as a cardiac event until a cardiac event is ruled out. Put the patient in a position of comfort. Give oxygen only if the patient is hypoxic. Repeat the vital signs, and transport to a facility that can get a 12-lead and cardiac labs.
Why the others are wrong
Reassure the patient this is unlikely to be cardiac since there is no chest pain: No chest pain counts for a lot in a young patient with no risk factors. Reassuring that patient that the problem is probably not cardiac can be reasonable. This patient is 68, diabetic, and diaphoretic. A patient like this is exactly the one who has a heart attack without chest pain. Here the missing chest pain should make you more suspicious, not less.
Advise the patient to follow up with their primary doctor instead of transporting: Follow-up with a primary doctor fits a truly minor complaint. Even then, the decision to leave a patient at home belongs to medical direction, not to the crew. A 68-year-old diabetic with unexplained diaphoresis does not have a minor complaint. If this patient goes into cardiac arrest with you, the patient has a chance. If the arrest happens at home, nobody may find the patient for hours.
Withhold any cardiac-related care since the presentation doesn't fit a classic pattern: Holding back care because the patient does not have the classic symptoms is the same mistake as option A, one step further. Oxygen if hypoxic, monitoring, and prompt transport carry almost no risk. Options A, C, and D all leave this patient without care. The three options only differ in the reason they give.
Question 8 of 10
A 54-year-old patient reports crushing substernal chest pressure radiating to the left arm that began 20 minutes ago at rest. The EMT has already assisted the patient with one dose of chewable aspirin. The patient is alert, the skin is pale and diaphoretic, and breath sounds are clear bilaterally. The vital signs are P 96/min, R 18/min, and SpO₂ 98% on room air; blood pressure has not yet been obtained. The patient's own prescribed sublingual nitroglycerin has not been used today, and the patient asks for it now. What should the EMT do next?
Show the answer and rationale
Correct answer · Obtain a blood pressure reading before assisting with the nitroglycerin
Get a blood pressure before you assist with the nitroglycerin. This patient has crushing chest pressure that radiates to the left arm and is asking for the prescribed nitroglycerin. The question tells you the blood pressure has not been obtained yet. Nitroglycerin relaxes the veins and can lower the blood pressure quickly. That's why you confirm the blood pressure right before every dose.
Why the others are wrong
Apply oxygen via NRB before assisting with any medication: Oxygen by NRB is for a chest pain patient who is hypoxic. This patient's SpO₂ is 98% on room air, so oxygenation is adequate and oxygen is not needed.
Assist with the nitroglycerin now and check the blood pressure afterward: Assisting first would relieve the discomfort sooner. Nitroglycerin can drop the blood pressure quickly, so the reading has to come before the dose, not after.
Administer a second dose of aspirin instead of the nitroglycerin: Aspirin is a one-time dose, and this patient already had it. A second dose of aspirin also does nothing about the patient's request for the nitroglycerin.
Question 9 of 10
A patient's chest discomfort resolves several minutes after taking one dose of prescribed sublingual nitroglycerin. Why does nitroglycerin relieve the discomfort of a cardiac event?
Show the answer and rationale
Correct answer · It dilates blood vessels, lowering the heart's oxygen demand
Nitroglycerin works by dilating the blood vessels, which lowers the heart's oxygen demand. The drug relaxes the smooth muscle in the walls of the blood vessels. With the arteries relaxed, the heart pumps against less resistance. The heart does less work with each contraction, so the heart needs less oxygen. The discomfort of a cardiac event comes from heart muscle that is not getting the oxygen it needs. That discomfort is angina. Lowering the heart's oxygen demand is what makes the discomfort ease. Nitroglycerin does not open the blocked artery.
Why the others are wrong
It increases the heart rate to strengthen cardiac output: Speeding up the heart sounds like a way to help a struggling heart. A faster heart rate raises the heart's oxygen demand. Relief comes from lowering oxygen demand, so a faster rate does the opposite.
It thins the blood to prevent new clots from forming: Thinning the blood to stop new clots is what aspirin does. Aspirin is the other drug you give for this presentation, and aspirin acts on clot formation. Nitroglycerin's relief comes from lowering the heart's oxygen demand, not from an antiplatelet effect.
It strengthens the heart muscle to increase contraction: Nitroglycerin does not make the heart contract harder. A stronger contraction would raise the heart's oxygen demand. This patient's relief came from lowering that demand.
Question 10 of 10
The EMT is completing transport of a 54-year-old patient to the emergency department after 25 minutes of care. The patient reports acute chest pain that began 45 minutes ago, with difficulty breathing and diaphoresis, and denies any cardiac history, medications, or allergies. The patient is alert but anxious and on high-flow oxygen. The vital signs are BP 116/72 mmHg, P 108/min, R 18/min, and SpO₂ 94%. The EMT is preparing to hand off the patient to the receiving nurse. Which of the following best represents an appropriate prehospital sign-out report using the situation, background, assessment, and recommendation format?
Show the answer and rationale
Correct answer · Situation: 54-year-old patient, 45 minutes of chest pain and diaphoresis. Background: No cardiac history, medications, or allergies. Assessment: Alert, P 108/min, BP 116/72 mmHg, R 18/min, SpO₂ 94% on high-flow oxygen. Recommendation: Suspected cardiac chest pain needing prompt evaluation
This report follows SBAR, which is situation, background, assessment, and recommendation, in that order. The assessment in C reports "SpO₂ 94% on high-flow oxygen." A saturation of 94% on room air is mild hypoxemia. A saturation of 94% on high-flow oxygen means this patient needs that much oxygen just to stay borderline. The receiving team needs to hear that the number only holds with oxygen running. The recommendation is "suspected cardiac chest pain needing prompt evaluation." A suspicion and a request for care stay inside EMT scope. The receiving team gets what they need to triage fast, without an EMT making a diagnosis or giving orders.
Why the others are wrong
Situation: 54-year-old patient brought in with chest pain. Background: Nothing significant that I am aware of. Assessment: The patient could be cardiac and the vital signs have stayed stable. Recommendation: The patient should probably be watched closely: Report A uses the SBAR headings but gives no real content. There is no onset time, no vital signs, and no treatment listed. "Nothing significant that I am aware of" is not a history the receiving team can use.
Situation: 54-year-old patient, 45 minutes of chest pain and diaphoresis. Background: No cardiac history, medications, or allergies. Assessment: This is an acute myocardial infarction with early cardiogenic changes. Recommendation: Draw troponins and activate the cath lab: "An acute myocardial infarction with early cardiogenic changes" is a diagnosis. Drawing troponins and activating the cath lab are physician decisions. An EMT reports suspected cardiac chest pain and leaves the diagnosis and the orders to the hospital.
Situation: 54-year-old patient, 45 minutes of chest pain and diaphoresis. Background: No cardiac history, medications, or allergies. Assessment: Alert and anxious, P 108/min, BP 116/72 mmHg, R 18/min, SpO₂ 94%. Recommendation: Suspected cardiac chest pain needing prompt evaluation: Report D matches C in the situation, background, and recommendation, and its assessment gives the vitals and mental status without diagnosing. Report D leaves out "on high-flow oxygen" after the SpO₂ of 94%. Without that detail, the nurse cannot tell the saturation only holds with full oxygen running. The report is incomplete, and the number sounds less urgent than the patient really is.
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