Skip to content
Free NREMT practice questionsFree EMT practice questions · Patient Treatment and Transport

10 free EMT practice questions: Orthopedic, Soft-Tissue & Burn Trauma

These are real questions from the same bank the app draws from. Each one is written to the NREMT EMT content specifications and kept inside the EMT scope of practice. Pick an answer and you get the full rationale, including why the other three options are wrong.

Work through all 10, then move on to the next topic. When you want the full picture, the free EMT diagnostic covers every topic in one sitting. No account needed for any of it.

Question 1 of 10

A patient sustains a traumatic amputation of two fingers in a table saw injury. After controlling bleeding at the stump, the EMT locates the amputated fingers. What is the correct method for transporting the amputated part to the hospital?

Show the answer and rationale

Correct answer · Wrap in sterile gauze, seal in a bag, and place the bag on ice

Cool the amputated fingers, but do not freeze them. Wrap the fingers in sterile gauze, seal them in a plastic bag, and set the bag on ice. Cold slows down how much oxygen the tissue needs. Needing less oxygen buys the surgeon hours to try to reattach the fingers. Ice touching the fingers directly freezes them. Ice crystals form inside the cells and break them open, and a frozen finger cannot be reattached. The gauze keeps the cut surfaces clean. Sealing the bag stops melting ice water from soaking into the tissue. The ice outside the bag cools the fingers through the bag without freezing them. Control the bleeding at the stump first. The patient comes before the part, and you never delay transport to look for a missing piece.

Why the others are wrong

Place the amputated fingers directly into a container of ice: Cold is the right idea for an amputated part. Putting the fingers right into ice freezes them. Ice crystals form inside the cells and break them, and the surgeon gets frostbitten fingers that cannot be reattached.

Submerge the amputated fingers in room-temperature water: Room-temperature water does not cool the fingers at all. The tissue keeps using oxygen at full speed with no blood supply. Soaking also waterlogs the tissue and makes it soft, and soft, waterlogged tissue is harder for the surgeon to work with.

Leave the amputated fingers uncovered in a warm location: Warmth speeds up the breakdown of tissue that already has no blood supply. Leaving the fingers uncovered also lets germs onto a surface the surgeon will have to close. Keeping warm is the right care for the patient. The fingers need the opposite.

Question 2 of 10

A worker at an industrial site has a chemical splash to the forearm from a dry powdered chemical. The skin is red and irritated where the powder contacted it. Bystanders are about to rinse the area with water when the EMT arrives. What should the EMT do first?

Show the answer and rationale

Correct answer · Brush off the dry powder, then irrigate with water

This is a dry chemical burn, and dry powder gets brushed off before any water touches it. Water activates many dry chemicals. A small rinse can turn a dry irritant into an active chemical burn. The water also spreads the powder onto skin that was clean. Stop the bystanders. With gloves on, brush the powder off and away from the patient. Keep the powder away from the eyes and airway. Then flush the area with a large amount of running water for a long time. The skin is only red and irritated right now, so you can still limit the burn.

Why the others are wrong

Allow the water rinse to continue immediately: Flushing right away is correct for a liquid chemical splash. With a liquid, every second you wait is more time the chemical sits on the skin. This chemical is a dry powder, so the order flips. Water poured onto dry powder can set off a reaction that makes heat. The water also washes the powder over more skin than it first touched.

Apply a neutralizing agent before irrigating: Neutralizing agents belong in a lab and in hazmat planning, not in patient care in the field. A neutralizing reaction gives off heat, so it adds a thermal burn on top of the chemical burn. Looking for the right agent also wastes time the patient does not have. A large amount of water dilutes the chemical and does the same job, after the powder is brushed off.

Cover with a dry dressing and do not irrigate: A dry dressing with no water is right for a short list of dry chemicals where water should never be used. Standard care for a powdered chemical on skin is brush off, then flush. Covering the powder without removing it leaves the chemical on the skin. The burn keeps going under the dressing.

Question 3 of 10

Firefighters report that a patient has been trapped under a collapsed wall for over four hours, with heavy debris compressing both legs, and extrication is expected to take at least 20 more minutes. The EMT cannot yet reach the patient to assess further. Which action is most appropriate for the EMT to take now, before the patient is freed?

Show the answer and rationale

Correct answer · Request advanced life support (ALS) intercept and alert the hospital

This patient is at risk for crush syndrome. Heavy debris has been crushing both legs for over four hours. While the debris is in place, the crushed muscle is dying and leaking potassium, myoglobin, and acid. The weight holds all of that in the legs. When the weight comes off, blood flows back in and carries that load into the rest of the body at once. Potassium can cause a sudden deadly dysrhythmia, and myoglobin can shut down the kidneys. The four hours of entrapment already tell you this risk, so you do not need to reach the patient to act on it. Use the 20 minutes left to make sure advanced care is ready when the patient is freed. Request an ALS intercept and alert the receiving hospital now.

Why the others are wrong

Wait until the patient is fully extricated before taking any action: Waiting until the patient is out is reasonable in most trauma, where you learn how bad things are by examining the patient. Crush syndrome is different, because the four hours the firefighters reported already tell you the risk. Nothing you find after the release will change the need for ALS. Waiting also means the request goes out right when the dysrhythmia risk is highest, and ALS arrives after the moment that mattered.

Have rescuers remove debris faster, with no coordination: Getting the debris off fast makes sense when the object is causing ongoing bleeding or blocking the airway. In a four-hour crush, a sudden release of both legs with no one ready is the event that kills. The release has to be timed so the crew is ready for it. Directing the rescue technique is also not the EMT's call here. Your part is calling for resources.

Delay requesting resources until vitals are assessed: Getting vital signs before calling for help makes sense when the numbers will change the plan. The EMT cannot reach the patient, so there are no vital signs to get. Vital signs taken before the release would also look falsely normal. The potassium and myoglobin are still trapped in the legs, so the numbers have not changed yet.

Question 4 of 10

A patient rolled an ankle stepping off a curb. The ankle is swollen and deformed with obvious point tenderness, but the foot is warm and pink with a strong pedal pulse and intact sensation. The patient is alert with stable vital signs and no other injuries. What is the most appropriate EMT management?

Show the answer and rationale

Correct answer · Splint in the position found and transport non-emergent

This is a stable, isolated ankle injury, so splint the ankle where it is and transport non-emergent. The ankle is swollen and deformed. Below the ankle, the foot is warm and pink with a strong pedal pulse and intact sensation. The patient is alert with stable vital signs and no other injuries. Blood is still getting past the injury to the foot. Loss of blood flow is what makes a bone or joint injury an emergency, not how deformed it looks. Check pulse, motor, and sensation before and after you splint, and write them down. Splint the ankle in the position you found it so the bone ends do not move. Add cold and elevation for comfort.

Why the others are wrong

Request an advanced life support (ALS) intercept for the deformity: An ALS intercept makes sense when the patient is unstable or needs something beyond EMT scope. Pain medicine for a badly displaced fracture on a long transport is one example. This patient's circulation, sensation, and vital signs are all normal. Calling ALS because the ankle looks bad ties up a unit another patient may need.

Realign the ankle to normal position before splinting: Realigning is for a limb that has lost circulation below the injury. Gentle traction into a more normal position may bring the blood flow back. This foot is warm and pink with a strong pulse, so there is no lost blood flow to bring back. Moving the ankle can damage the nerves and vessels and turn a stable injury into a worse one.

Withhold splinting until arrival at the hospital: Skipping the splint fits a rapid load-and-go, when a life threat comes first. This patient has no other injuries and stable vital signs. Nothing else needs those minutes. A deformed ankle with no splint keeps moving during transport. That movement causes more pain, more damage to the tissue and vessels, and more bleeding into the joint.

Question 5 of 10

When splinting a suspected fracture of the shaft of a long bone, the EMT should stabilize which of the following?

Show the answer and rationale

Correct answer · The joint above and the joint below the fracture

Stabilize the joint above and the joint below the fracture. The break is in the shaft, the long straight part of the bone between its two ends. When the limb bends at either joint, the movement travels down the shaft to the break. The broken bone ends then shear against muscle, blood vessels, and nerves. Splinting the joint above and the joint below stops movement at both ends of the bone. The fracture site stays still no matter how the patient shifts. Holding the fracture still prevents more damage to the soft tissue, blood vessels, and nerves while you move and transport the patient.

Why the others are wrong

Only the joint distal to the fracture: The joint distal to the fracture, the one below it, is where you check pulse, motor function, and sensation after you splint. Splinting only the joint below leaves the joint above free to move. Movement at the joint above travels down the shaft into the break just as easily.

Only the joint proximal to the fracture: Splinting only the proximal joint, the one above the fracture, leaves the joint below free to swing. Any swing at the joint below moves the fracture site too. The splint has to hold both joints.

The entire limb without regard to adjacent joints: Wrapping the whole limb can look thorough. A splint that does not lock in both joints still lets the bone ends twist or bend at the break.

Question 6 of 10

A patient has an obviously deformed forearm after a fall. On palpation directly over the injury, the patient reports significant pain. What is this finding called?

Show the answer and rationale

Correct answer · Point tenderness

This is point tenderness. The patient reports pain right where you press, directly over the injury. Pressing on the deformed forearm sets off the pain nerves at that exact spot. Those nerves are in the periosteum, the covering of the bone, and in the tissue around it. The patient feels the pain under your fingertip, not spread out or somewhere else. Point tenderness tells you where the fracture or injury is. Use that spot to guide how you splint, where you avoid pressing again, and where you focus your exam and documentation.

Why the others are wrong

Crepitus: a grating or crackling you feel or hear. Broken bone ends rubbing together cause crepitus, and so does air under the skin. The question describes pain when you press, with nothing about grating.

Guarding: the patient tensing up or holding a body part still to protect it from movement. You can see guarding before you ever touch the area. This patient is reporting pain from your direct pressure on the injury, and point tenderness is the more specific name for that.

Referred pain: shows up away from the injured part, like shoulder pain from a ruptured spleen. This patient feels the pain exactly where you pressed on the forearm.

Question 7 of 10

A 68-year-old patient with chronic lower back pain calls EMS during a flare-up. The patient has a clear history of mechanical back pain from degenerative disc disease, denies trauma, and is neurovascularly intact with normal strength. What is the most appropriate action?

Show the answer and rationale

Correct answer · Assess carefully; position for comfort and transport non-urgent absent red flags

This patient has a flare-up of chronic mechanical back pain, with no sign of a spine injury. The patient denies any trauma and is neurovascularly intact with normal strength. With no mechanism of injury and a normal motor and sensory exam, nothing points to damage to the spinal cord or the nerve roots. Spinal motion restriction would not help this patient. Spinal motion restriction would only add pain and keep a patient with degenerative disc disease stuck in one position. Assess for red flags, position the patient for comfort, and transport non-urgently.

Why the others are wrong

Assume spinal precautions are needed for all back pain and apply full C-spine immobilization: Immobilizing every back pain patient comes from older teaching that restricted the spine until an injury was ruled out. This patient denies trauma and has a normal neuro exam. Those two findings already answer the spine injury question. Applying the old rule anyway skips the assessment you just did.

Immobilize the patient as a precaution because he is elderly: Older patients do have a higher risk of fractures from minor falls and bumps. This patient reports no mechanism at all, only a flare of chronic pain. Age alone, without trauma or abnormal exam findings, is not a reason to immobilize.

Advise the patient to stay home and rest; do not transport unless pain is severe: Some chronic pain flares are mild enough to manage at home. This patient called 911 during the flare, and nothing in the question says the pain is minor. The crew does not get to decide alone that a patient who called for help stays home. The decision not to transport belongs to the patient and medical direction.

Question 8 of 10

An 18-year-old presents with a 3-inch laceration on the forearm from a dirty fence. After hemorrhage is controlled, the EMT must prevent infection. Which approach best protects against contamination?

Show the answer and rationale

Correct answer · Rinse with sterile saline or clean water, apply a sterile gauze dressing, and bandage securely

Rinse the wound with sterile saline or clean water, cover it with sterile gauze, and bandage it securely. The bleeding is already controlled, so cleaning the wound comes next. This laceration came from a dirty fence. A large amount of fluid flowing over the wound carries dirt and bacteria out. A sterile dressing stops new dirt and bacteria from getting in during transport. A dirty fence can also mean deep contamination and a tetanus risk. The hospital handles both of those. Your job is to get as much out of the wound as you can and protect the wound on the way there.

Why the others are wrong

Rinse with tap water, apply topical antibiotic cream, and cover with a clean cloth: Tap water is fine for rinsing when you have nothing sterile, so the first step is reasonable. Topical antibiotic cream is not an EMT medication. A clean cloth is not sterile, and the cloth would sit right on open tissue.

Do not rinse the wound; apply a sterile dressing immediately to seal it: Putting a dressing on without rinsing is right when the bleeding is the emergency. With an arterial bleed, you control the bleeding first and clean later, or not at all. In this question, the bleeding is already controlled, so now is the time to rinse. Sealing fence dirt under a sterile dressing traps bacteria against the tissue.

Scrub the laceration with antiseptic and gauze to remove all visible debris: Scrubbing a wound with antiseptic is done in surgery under anesthesia to remove dead tissue. In the field, scrubbing restarts the bleeding you just stopped. Scrubbing also damages the wound edges, pushes dirt deeper into the tissue, and hurts the patient.

Question 9 of 10

A 45-year-old patient was caught in a house fire. The EMT observes full-thickness burns on the left leg and part of the lower abdomen. The burned skin appears charred and leathery, and the patient reports no pain in the burned areas. What is the clinical significance of the patient's lack of pain sensation in these burned regions?

Show the answer and rationale

Correct answer · Nerve endings were destroyed by the deep injury, a sign of full-thickness destruction

The lack of pain tells you these are full-thickness burns that destroyed the nerve endings. The burned skin on the left leg and lower abdomen is charred and leathery, and the patient feels no pain there. A full-thickness burn goes all the way through the epidermis and the dermis. The nerve endings that carry pain are destroyed along with the skin. With the nerve endings gone, the burned tissue cannot send a pain signal. No pain here is not a good sign. The missing pain confirms how deep the burn is. Treat for shock, watch the patient closely, and transport fast. Any partial-thickness skin next to these burns will still be very painful.

Why the others are wrong

The patient is in shock and cannot perceive pain signals: Shock can dull pain all over the body because of poor perfusion. Shock would not take the pain away only in the charred, leathery skin. The pain is missing exactly where the burns are full thickness. That pattern points to destroyed nerve endings in the burned tissue, not shock.

Full-thickness burns are less serious than partial-thickness burns since they hurt less: Partial-thickness burns do hurt more, because their nerve endings are damaged but still alive. Hurting less does not make a burn less serious. Full-thickness burns are the deepest and most severe burns. The charred, leathery skin shows the burn went through both layers of skin.

The patient will experience severe pain once the burn begins to cool during transport: Pain coming back later would fit a burn where the nerve endings are still alive. Here the nerve endings are destroyed, and destroyed nerve endings do not grow back during a transport. Cooling will not bring pain back to the full-thickness areas. Any pain that shows up on the way comes from partial-thickness burns around them.

Question 10 of 10

A patient splashes an alkaline cleaning solution into one eye. Which of the following is the most appropriate EMT technique for irrigating the affected eye?

Show the answer and rationale

Correct answer · Flush continuously from the inner corner toward the outer corner for 20 minutes

This is an alkali burn to one eye. An alkaline cleaning solution breaks down the tissue it touches. The alkali keeps soaking deeper into the cornea and the sclera for as long as it stays in the eye. An acid burn is different, because the acid forms a protective barrier at the surface. The alkali keeps destroying tissue, so you flush continuously for 20 minutes instead of giving the eye a quick rinse. Run the water from the inner corner toward the outer corner. That direction carries the diluted chemical away from the tear duct, the nasolacrimal duct, and away from the other eye. Flush on scene, right away, and keep flushing. Do not wait for the hospital.

Why the others are wrong

Flush for 2 to 3 minutes from the outer corner of the eye toward the inner corner: Two to three minutes of flushing fits a mild irritant that stays on the surface. An alkali keeps soaking in until it is diluted, so that is not long enough here. Option B also runs the water from the outer corner toward the inner corner. Water going that way pushes the chemical toward the tear duct and the other eye.

Cover both eyes with moist dressings and begin irrigation on arrival at the hospital: Covering both eyes with moist dressings and waiting for the hospital is right for a penetrating eye injury. In that case you protect the eyeball and avoid putting pressure on it. This patient has a chemical splash, not a penetrating injury. Waiting to flush lets the alkali keep burning deeper the whole way to the hospital.

Irrigate both eyes at the same time, directing the flow from the outer corners inward: Flushing both eyes fits a patient who got the chemical in both eyes. It also fits a case where the chemical is likely to spread to the other eye. This question says the solution splashed into one eye, so only that eye needs flushing. Option D also runs the water from the outer corners inward. That direction can carry the chemical into the eye that was not splashed.

Find out which EMT topics are costing you points

Ten questions on one topic tell you about that topic. The free diagnostic covers every EMT topic and breaks your results down by topic, so you know what to drill next. No card, no signup to try it.

Take the free EMT diagnostic

More free EMT practice questions by topic