10 free EMT practice questions: Focused History (SAMPLE / OPQRST)
These are real questions from the same bank the app draws from. Each one is written to the NREMT EMT content specifications and kept inside the EMT scope of practice. Pick an answer and you get the full rationale, including why the other three options are wrong.
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Question 1 of 10
A 54-year-old patient with a 15-year history of heavy daily alcohol use was admitted to the hospital 3 days ago for an unrelated injury and has had no alcohol since admission. Nursing staff call for EMS transfer assistance because the patient is now severely agitated, disoriented, diaphoretic, and reports seeing insects crawling on the walls. The vital signs are BP 172/98 mmHg, P 138/min, and T 101.8°F. What does this presentation most likely represent?
Show the answer and rationale
Correct answer · Delirium tremens; a high-acuity emergency needing rapid transport
This patient is in delirium tremens, or DTs, which is severe alcohol withdrawal. The patient has been a heavy daily drinker for 15 years. The last drink was 3 days ago, when the patient was admitted. Now the patient is disoriented, sweating, and seeing insects on the walls. The pulse is 138, the blood pressure is 172/98, and the temperature is 101.8°F. Years of heavy drinking change the brain's chemistry. GABA, the brain's calming signal, gets weaker. Glutamate, the brain's excitement signal, gets stronger. While the patient keeps drinking, the alcohol holds the excitement down. When the alcohol stops all at once, nothing is holding the excitement down anymore. That's why you see confusion, a fast pulse, high blood pressure, fever, and sweating all at once. DTs can kill a patient through seizures, an abnormal heart rhythm, or a dangerously high body temperature. Watch the airway and the vital signs the whole way, and transport fast.
Why the others are wrong
Ongoing alcohol intoxication; the findings will clear with time: Alcohol intoxication can cause confusion and seeing things that are not there. This patient has not had a drink since admission 3 days ago. These findings are withdrawal getting worse, not intoxication wearing off. They will not clear up without treatment.
A primary psychiatric disorder with hallucinations: A psychiatric disorder, like a manic or psychotic episode, can cause agitation and vivid hallucinations with no alcohol involved. A psychiatric disorder does not give you a pulse of 138, a blood pressure of 172/98, and a temperature of 101.8°F. Vital signs like these point to a physical cause in the body.
Alcoholic hallucinosis, in which mentation and vital signs stay intact: Alcoholic hallucinosis also causes vivid hallucinations after a patient stops drinking. Alcoholic hallucinosis shows up 12 to 48 hours after the last drink. The patient stays oriented, and the vital signs stay normal. This patient is disoriented, with a pulse of 138 and a temperature of 101.8°F. Those findings put this patient in DTs.
Question 2 of 10
A 71-year-old patient calls for an ambulance reporting difficulty breathing. The patient tells the EMT the difficulty breathing started suddenly about 15 minutes ago while sitting and watching television. There was no recent change in activity level or environment. Why is the sudden onset of the patient's difficulty breathing significant for the EMT's assessment?
Show the answer and rationale
Correct answer · Sudden onset difficulty breathing suggests an acute, potentially life-threatening condition, whereas gradual onset is more consistent with a chronic process
A sudden onset suggests an acute problem that could be life threatening. This patient's trouble breathing started suddenly about 15 minutes ago, while sitting and watching television. Nothing changed in the patient's activity or surroundings. Breathing trouble that comes on that fast points to an acute event. A pulmonary embolism blocks blood flow to the lungs. A spontaneous pneumothorax collapses part of a lung. A heart attack drops the amount of blood the heart pumps out. Anaphylaxis swells the airway. None of these problems need time to build. Breathing trouble that comes on slowly fits a slow process like COPD or heart failure. Onset is the O in OPQRST, which stands for onset, provocation, quality, radiation, severity, and time. A sudden onset like this one pushes you toward rapid transport for a likely life threat.
Why the others are wrong
Sudden onset difficulty breathing indicates the patient requires supplemental oxygen administration before completing the rest of the secondary assessment: Oxygen is right for most patients with trouble breathing, no matter how the trouble started. A sudden onset does not decide when you give oxygen. A sudden onset also does not let you skip the rest of the secondary assessment. The question asks what the onset tells you, and option A answers a question about treatment order.
Sudden onset difficulty breathing means the patient requires advanced airway management more urgently than a patient with gradual onset: Advanced airway management is outside EMT scope. Intubation is a paramedic skill. How fast the trouble started cannot make a skill you do not carry more urgent.
Sudden onset difficulty breathing indicates the condition cannot be asthma, which develops over a longer period: An asthma attack can start within minutes once a trigger causes bronchospasm. A 15 minute onset does not rule asthma out. Sudden onset narrows the list to acute problems, and asthma is still on that list.
Question 3 of 10
A 55-year-old patient calls 911 reporting acute chest pain. During secondary assessment, when gathering the SAMPLE history, the patient reports several medical conditions: diabetes managed with oral medications, hypothyroidism treated with daily medication, a hysterectomy 15 years ago, and an appendectomy 10 years ago. Which of these elements of the SAMPLE history is most directly relevant to the patient's current presentation?
Show the answer and rationale
Correct answer · The diabetes managed with oral medications
The diabetes is the part of this history that matters for chest pain. Diabetes goes under the P in SAMPLE, for pertinent past medical history. SAMPLE stands for signs and symptoms, allergies, medications, pertinent past medical history, last oral intake, and events leading up to the complaint. Years of high blood sugar speed up atherosclerosis and damage the small blood vessels. Diabetic neuropathy can also dull the nerves that carry pain from the heart. That's why diabetics often have unusual or mild chest pain during a real heart attack. Keep a high suspicion for acute coronary syndrome. Get a 12-lead promptly, and do not lower your transport priority because the pain sounds vague.
Why the others are wrong
The hysterectomy performed 15 years ago: The hysterectomy goes under the P for past medical history, and you should document it. The surgery was 15 years ago, and the organs involved have no link to blood flow to the heart. The hysterectomy tells you nothing about this chest pain.
The hypothyroidism managed with daily medication: Hypothyroidism is a chronic condition listed right next to the diabetes. Treated hypothyroidism does not speed up coronary artery disease the way diabetes does. Severe, untreated hypothyroidism can cause bradycardia or fluid around the heart. Nothing here says this patient's thyroid disease is out of control, so the thyroid does not explain the chest pain.
The appendectomy performed 10 years ago: The appendectomy is accurate surgical history, but the surgery was 10 years ago and involved the digestive tract. Old belly surgery gives you no information about this patient's heart risk or current pain.
Question 4 of 10
A 72-year-old patient reports weakness that began this morning. A family member hands the EMT four prescription bottles, and the EMT records the drug name, dose, and directions printed on each label. The patient is alert and answering questions. The vital signs are BP 128/76 mmHg, P 88/min, R 18/min, and SpO₂ 96% on room air. Which additional information most completely addresses the medications element of the SAMPLE history?
Show the answer and rationale
Correct answer · Which prescriptions are being taken, and any over-the-counter or herbal use
Ask which prescriptions the patient is actually taking, and about any over-the-counter or herbal products. Reading the labels tells you what was prescribed, not what the patient has actually taken. The medications part of SAMPLE covers what the patient is prescribed and how the patient takes each one. The medications part also covers any prescription the patient has stopped taking. Products that are not prescribed count too: over-the-counter drugs, vitamins, herbal products, someone else's medication, and recreational drugs. A patient may have stopped a prescription, or may be taking something from the store that never shows up on a pharmacy label. The bottles cannot show you either one, and asking fills that gap.
Why the others are wrong
The name of the physician who prescribed each of the four medications: The prescriber's name belongs to the prescription record. The name of the doctor does not tell you or the hospital what is actually in the patient's system right now.
Whether the patient has ever reacted badly to any of the four medications: A past bad reaction to a medication belongs under the allergies part of SAMPLE. A past reaction matters, but a past reaction does not complete the medications part.
How long the patient has been taking each of the four prescribed medications: How long the patient has been on a medication is background information. The medications part asks what the patient is taking and how the patient is taking each one.
Question 5 of 10
A 74-year-old patient reports difficulty breathing that has worsened over 2 days. The patient is found sitting upright and leaning forward on the edge of a chair. When the EMT asks the patient to lie back for the assessment, the patient sits up again and states the breathing feels worse lying down. The vital signs are BP 156/92 mmHg, P 108/min, R 26/min, and SpO₂ 90% on room air. How should the EMT use this observation?
Show the answer and rationale
Correct answer · Record it under provocation and palliation, and transport upright
This patient has orthopnea, a sign of congestive heart failure (CHF). The patient sits back up and says the breathing feels worse lying down. When the patient lies flat, blood and fluid move from the legs and belly back into the chest. The failing left side of the heart cannot keep up with the extra blood, and more fluid backs up into the lungs. In OPQRST, provocation and palliation covers what makes a symptom worse and what makes it better. That's why this observation goes under provocation and palliation. The seated, forward-leaning position is helping this patient breathe. Assess and transport the patient sitting upright. Do not lay the patient flat just to make the exam easier.
Why the others are wrong
Record it under quality, and transport the patient sitting upright: Quality covers the patient's own words for how the breathing feels, like tight or crushing. This finding is about position. The breathing is worse lying down and better sitting forward. Position changes belong under provocation and palliation, not quality.
Record it under provocation and palliation, and place the patient supine: Lying supine is a routine position for many exams. This patient sat back up and said the breathing is worse lying flat, and the SpO₂ is 90%. Laying the patient supine ignores what you just found and makes the hypoxia worse.
Record it under onset, and transport the patient in a position of comfort: Onset covers what the patient was doing when the trouble breathing started, 2 days ago. Onset does not cover how position affects the breathing now. Position goes under provocation and palliation.
Question 6 of 10
A 34-year-old patient who lives in a group home and has a developmental disability reports stomach discomfort that started after lunch. The patient is alert, answers in short sentences, and makes eye contact with the EMT. A staff member from the group home is present and offers to answer the questions. The vital signs are BP 122/74 mmHg, P 86/min, R 16/min, and SpO₂ 99% on room air. Which approach to the focused history is most appropriate?
Show the answer and rationale
Correct answer · Question the patient directly and use the staff member to fill in omissions
Question the patient directly, and use the staff member to fill in what is left out. A developmental disability does not mean the patient cannot give you good information. This patient is alert, answers in short sentences, and makes eye contact with you. The patient can tell you firsthand when the stomach discomfort started and what it feels like. Ask the patient first, and watch for details the patient leaves out. The staff member from the group home is your second source. Use the staff member for details like what the patient ate, medications, and how the patient normally acts.
Why the others are wrong
Obtain the whole history from the staff member, who knows the patient well: The staff member knows the patient well and is a good source for details. Taking the whole history from staff skips a patient who is alert and answering. You lose the only firsthand description of the discomfort.
Limit the questions to those the patient can answer with yes or no: Yes or no questions can seem easier for the patient. Yes or no questions limit the answers and put your words in place of the patient's words. This patient is already answering in sentences.
Postpone the history until a guardian can be reached by telephone: A guardian matters for consent from a legal representative, not for getting the history. Waiting on a phone call delays care. The patient who can describe the discomfort is sitting right in front of you.
Question 7 of 10
A 63-year-old patient reports abdominal discomfort. When asked what is wrong, the patient begins a long account that moves between a recent trip, a family argument, and several past hospital visits. The patient is alert, the skin is warm and dry, and the vital signs are BP 128/78 mmHg, P 82/min, R 16/min, and SpO₂ 98% on room air. How should the EMT manage this interview?
Show the answer and rationale
Correct answer · Let the patient speak for the first few minutes, then summarize to refocus
Let the patient talk for the first few minutes, then summarize to refocus. This patient talks a lot and jumps between topics. The account moves from a recent trip to a family argument to old hospital visits. With a patient who talks a lot, give them free rein for the first few minutes. Then summarize what they told you, and keep summarizing as you go. Summarizing brings the patient back to your questions without cutting them off. This patient is alert with stable vital signs, so you have time for those first few minutes.
Why the others are wrong
Interrupt as soon as the account moves off the abdominal discomfort: Cutting the patient off looks like the fast way to get to the abdominal discomfort. Interrupting is one of the named hazards of an interview. You lose rapport with the patient, and you can cut off the detail that explains the complaint.
Switch to questions the patient can answer with a single word: Questions with one-word answers get the interview under control fastest. Closed questions also replace the patient's own account with your guesses. You miss important history that way.
Let the patient continue uninterrupted until the account is finished: Not interrupting is the right move for the opening minutes, not for the whole interview. Without summarizing along the way, you never get the abdominal complaint pinned down.
Question 8 of 10
An 81-year-old patient at home reports feeling weak for 2 days. The patient is alert and oriented and answers appropriately, but responds slowly and asks the EMT to repeat several questions. A hearing aid and a pair of eyeglasses are on the bedside table. An adult child is present and offers to answer for the patient. The vital signs are BP 138/82 mmHg, P 78/min, R 16/min, and SpO₂ 96% on room air. Which approach to the focused history is most appropriate?
Show the answer and rationale
Correct answer · Give the patient the hearing aid and glasses, and allow extra time
Give the patient the hearing aid and glasses, and allow extra time. This patient is alert, oriented, and answering appropriately, so the patient is the right person to give the history. The slow answers and the requests to repeat questions come from trouble hearing and seeing. The hearing aid and the eyeglasses that fix that problem are sitting on the bedside table. Give them to the patient. Expect the interview with an older patient to take longer than it would with a younger one. Once the patient can hear and see you and has time to answer, you get the history in the patient's own words.
Why the others are wrong
Have the adult child answer so the history is not delayed: Slow answers from an older patient can sound like the patient is not a reliable source. This patient is alert, oriented, and answering appropriately. The slow answers come from hearing and pacing, not from a mental status problem.
Raise the volume of the questions and shorten them to yes-or-no answers: Talking louder is a common response to a patient who asks you to repeat things. Shouting does not fix a hearing problem that the patient's own hearing aid fixes. Yes or no questions also cut the patient's answers down to your own guesses.
Have the adult child repeat each question loudly to the patient: Having family repeat the questions sounds like a way around the hearing problem. Relaying through the adult child puts a second person between you and the patient's own words. The hearing aid that fixes the problem is already on the bedside table.
Question 9 of 10
A 47-year-old patient reports chest discomfort that began 20 minutes ago and has taken no medication for it. The patient is alert and conversational, and the skin is warm and dry. The vital signs are BP 144/86 mmHg, P 96/min, R 18/min, and SpO₂ 97% on room air. Which question is most appropriate for the EMT to ask next during the focused history?
Show the answer and rationale
Correct answer · “What does the discomfort feel like?”
Asking what the discomfort feels like is an open-ended question. The quality of chest discomfort has to come from the patient's own words. An open-ended question lets the patient choose those words. A good interview uses open-ended questions, asks one question at a time, and uses words the patient understands. Each wrong option here breaks one of those habits. A leading question, medical jargon, or two questions stacked together all change the answer you get back. Then you cannot trust what the patient told you.
Why the others are wrong
“Is the discomfort crushing, like a weight on the chest?”: Offering a word like crushing seems to help a patient who is struggling to describe the discomfort. Asking if the discomfort is crushing, like a weight on the chest, is a leading question. You are handing the patient the classic answer. After that, you cannot tell if the description came from the patient or from you.
“Is the discomfort retrosternal or epigastric?”: Retrosternal and epigastric are precise medical words. A patient who does not know those words will guess or just agree. Then the answer tells you nothing.
“Do you have any history of angina, and did it start with exertion?”: A history of angina and whether it started with exertion are both useful to know. Asking about both at the same time is two questions in one. The patient gives you one answer, and you cannot tell which question it answers.
Question 10 of 10
A patient reports chest pain during a history taken by an EMT. Which question gathers the “T” in OPQRST?
Show the answer and rationale
Correct answer · “When did the pain first begin?”
The T in OPQRST stands for Time. Time covers when the symptom first started, whether it has been constant or comes and goes, and whether it has changed since it started. "When did the pain first begin?" asks for exactly that. With chest pain, how long the pain has been going on is the first thing a receiving cath lab wants to know. Onset and Time can both sound like "when." Onset asks what the patient was doing and whether the pain came on suddenly or slowly. Time asks how long ago the pain started.
Why the others are wrong
“What were you doing when the pain started?”: "What were you doing when the pain started?" is a good question to ask this patient. That question is the O, for Onset. Onset tells you whether the chest pain started during exertion or at rest. Onset and Time both deal with the start of the pain, and only Time asks how long ago it started.
“Does the pain radiate anywhere?”: Asking whether the pain radiates is the R, for Region and Radiation. The radiation question catches chest pain that travels to the jaw, the left arm, or through to the back. This patient should get the radiation question too. Radiation tells you nothing about how long the pain has lasted.
“What does the pain feel like?”: Asking what the pain feels like is the Q, for Quality. The question is left open on purpose so the patient picks the word, like crushing, tearing, burning, or pressure. You ask this one on this patient too. A description of how the pain feels is quality, not time.
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