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10 free EMT practice questions: Reassessment & Trending

These are real questions from the same bank the app draws from. Each one is written to the NREMT EMT content specifications and kept inside the EMT scope of practice. Pick an answer and you get the full rationale, including why the other three options are wrong.

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Question 1 of 10

While transporting an adult patient with abdominal pain, the EMT obtains the following findings. First reassessment at 5 minutes: blood pressure 132/86, heart rate 96, respirations 16, skin warm and dry. Second reassessment at 15 minutes: blood pressure 124/80, heart rate 108, respirations 20, skin pale and cool to the touch. What does this trending pattern most likely indicate?

Show the answer and rationale

Correct answer · The patient may be compensating for shock; transport emergently with frequent reassessment

The combination of decreasing blood pressure, increasing heart rate, increasing respiratory rate, and a shift from warm/dry to pale/cool skin represents a pattern consistent with compensatory shock mechanisms. This trending suggests possible internal hemorrhage or inadequate perfusion. This patient now requires emergent transport and increased reassessment frequency (every 5 minutes).

Why the others are wrong

The patient is stable; these are normal variations within acceptable vital sign ranges: Incorrect. These changes are not random variation; the pattern of multiple findings changing together indicates a significant physiologic change.

The patient is improving, as evidenced by the decrease in blood pressure: Incorrect. A slightly lower blood pressure in isolation might suggest improvement, but must be interpreted with all other findings. Rising heart rate and respiratory rate with pale, cool skin indicate the body is compensating, not improving.

The vital signs are within normal limits, so no change in transport priority is needed: Incorrect. While individual values may be within a normal range, the trending pattern together indicates deterioration and instability.

Question 2 of 10

A 62-year-old patient with asthma calls 911 reporting difficulty breathing. Initial assessment reveals a respiratory rate of 26 with visible retractions and accessory muscle use, the patient speaking only two words at a time, and pulse oximetry reading 88%. The EMT applies high-flow oxygen via NRB. At reassessment 5 minutes later, the respiratory rate is 22, retractions are less pronounced, the patient is now speaking in four-word phrases, and pulse oximetry reads 92%. What does this trending pattern most likely indicate?

Show the answer and rationale

Correct answer · The patient is responding positively to oxygen therapy

The patient demonstrates consistent improvement across multiple parameters during reassessment: respiratory rate declined from 26 to 22, retractions are less prominent, difficulty breathing severity improved (two-word to four-word speaking), and pulse oximetry improved from 88% to 92%. This trending clearly indicates positive response to supplemental oxygen therapy. The patient still requires transport for evaluation and further treatment, but the current intervention is effective.

Why the others are wrong

The patient's condition is worsening despite oxygen therapy: Incorrect. All trending parameters show improvement, not deterioration.

The patient is improving and transport can be safely delayed: Incorrect. Patients with respiratory distress require evaluation at the hospital regardless of initial response to therapy; improvement during transport does not eliminate the need for medical evaluation.

The initial vital signs were unreliable and should be disregarded: Incorrect. The initial assessment was accurate. Reassessment trending is clinically meaningful and demonstrates the effect of the EMT's treatment.

Question 3 of 10

An EMT is providing positive pressure ventilations with a bag-mask device to an unresponsive 58-year-old patient at a rate of 1 breath every 6 seconds. The airway was suctioned clear during the primary assessment and no foreign body is visible. At the reassessment 2 minutes later the chest rises only slightly with each ventilation, the abdomen has become visibly distended, and the vital signs are BP 106/64 mmHg, P 118/min, and SpO₂ 88%, down from 94%. Which action is most appropriate?

Show the answer and rationale

Correct answer · Reposition the head and re-establish the mask seal

Reassessing an intervention means asking whether it is actually working, not just whether it was performed. Here it is not working: slight chest rise, a distending abdomen, and a falling oxygen saturation together say air is going into the stomach instead of the lungs. The two causes of that pattern are ventilating too forcefully or too rapidly, and an obstructed or improperly positioned airway. The rate is already 1 breath every 6 seconds and the airway was suctioned clear with no foreign body seen, which leaves head position and mask seal as the correctable causes. Repositioning the head and re-establishing the seal, then watching again for chest rise, is the standard correction and is done before changing rate or force.

Why the others are wrong

Apply firm pressure over the abdomen to relieve the distention: This is the misconception that the stomach air should be pushed back out. Manual decompression of the abdomen is a last-resort measure only, because it invites vomiting and aspiration in an unresponsive patient with an unprotected airway. The instruction is to continue slow ventilation without attempting to expel stomach contents.

Increase the rate to 1 breath every 3 seconds: This is the misconception that a falling oxygen saturation during ventilation means the patient needs more breaths. The rate is already correct for an adult, and the finding is inadequate volume per breath, not too few breaths. Ventilating faster is one of the two ways gastric distention is created, so this makes the distention and the poor chest rise worse.

Squeeze the bag more forcefully with each ventilation: This is the misconception that poor chest rise is solved by squeezing harder. Forceful ventilation is the other recognized cause of gastric distention; the standard is a slow, gentle breath delivered over 1 second, just enough to produce visible chest rise. Adding force pushes more air into the stomach and further limits diaphragm movement.

Question 4 of 10

An EMT is reassessing a 24-year-old patient every 5 minutes after a fall from a roof. The first set of vital signs is BP 126/74 mmHg, P 92/min, and R 18/min. The second set is BP 124/86 mmHg, P 108/min, and R 18/min. The third set is BP 122/98 mmHg, P 124/min, and R 18/min. The patient is alert and has become increasingly restless, and the skin is now pale and cool. There is no head injury and no external bleeding. Which interpretation of this trend is most appropriate?

Show the answer and rationale

Correct answer · Compensated shock, because the pulse pressure is narrowing

Trending means comparing the sets, not reading the newest one. Across three reassessments the systolic pressure barely moves while the diastolic pressure climbs, so the pulse pressure, which is the difference between the two, narrows from 52 to 38 to 24. A narrowing pulse pressure, a rising pulse, restlessness, and pale, cool skin are the listed findings of compensated shock, in which the body's vasoconstriction is still holding the blood pressure up. The mechanism supports occult internal bleeding, and the absence of head injury and external bleeding removes the competing explanations. The item is answered by reading the direction of a derived value across time, not by any single abnormal number.

Why the others are wrong

An anxiety reaction, because the respiratory rate has not changed: This is the misconception that restlessness in a young trauma patient is emotional. Anxiety does not produce pale, cool skin or a pulse that climbs from 92/min to 124/min across ten minutes, and restlessness is itself one of the earliest listed findings of compensated shock rather than an argument against it.

Rising intracranial pressure, because the pulse pressure is widening: This is the inversion a well-prepared student makes: the two directions of pulse pressure change get swapped. A widening pulse pressure belongs to rising intracranial pressure, and this patient's pulse pressure is going the other way, from 52 to 24. Rising intracranial pressure also drives the pulse down rather than up, and the question states there is no head injury.

Stable perfusion, because the systolic pressure has held: This is the misconception that a systolic pressure inside the normal range means perfusion is holding. Blood pressure is often the last measurable value to change in shock, and it is being maintained here by the same vasoconstriction that is raising the diastolic pressure, narrowing the pulse pressure, and making the skin pale and cool.

Question 5 of 10

EMTs gave intranasal naloxone to a 27-year-old patient who was found unresponsive and breathing slowly after a suspected opioid overdose. Within 3 minutes the breathing became adequate and the patient answered questions. The secondary assessment found no signs of injury, and the patient has taken nothing since EMS arrival and has no history of chronic lung disease. Forty minutes into transport the patient is again difficult to arouse, the pupils are again pinpoint, and the vital signs are BP 112/70 mmHg, P 62/min, R 6/min and shallow, and SpO₂ 84% on high-flow oxygen. The BGL is 104 mg/dL. Which explanation for this change is most appropriate?

Show the answer and rationale

Correct answer · The naloxone is wearing off while the opioid is still active

Reassessment exists partly because an intervention that worked once does not necessarily keep working. Naloxone's duration of action is shorter than that of many opioids, so a patient who responds well to an initial dose remains at real risk of recurrent respiratory depression as the naloxone wears off before the opioid does. That is exactly the pattern here: an initial response, then a return of the original toxidrome after roughly 40 minutes, with the pinpoint pupils and the slow, shallow breathing back. The question removes the competing explanations by ruling out further ingestion, chronic lung disease, injury, and hypoglycemia, which leaves the pharmacology of the reversal itself as the reason the patient is failing again.

Why the others are wrong

The patient has settled into ordinary sleep after the reversal: This is the misconception that drowsiness after a reversal is simply the patient resting. Ordinary sleep does not come with a respiratory rate of 6/min, shallow chest movement, an oxygen saturation of 84% on high-flow oxygen, and pupils that have returned to pinpoint. Those findings describe returning respiratory depression, not sleep.

The high-flow oxygen has suppressed the respiratory drive: This is the hypoxic-drive misconception, applied to a patient it was never about. The idea belongs to a small subset of patients with long-standing chronic lung disease, and the question states there is no such history. It also fails on the numbers, because a patient whose oxygen saturation is 84% on high-flow oxygen is not receiving too much oxygen.

An unrecognized head injury from the collapse is now progressing: This is the misconception that a second declining level of consciousness must mean a new structural problem. A progressing head injury would be expected to raise the blood pressure and would not restore pinpoint pupils, and the question states the secondary assessment found no signs of injury. Naming a new diagnosis here would delay recognition of the reversible cause already in front of the EMT.

Question 6 of 10

An EMT is reassessing a 71-year-old patient being treated for hypovolemic shock after 2 days of vomiting and diarrhea. The patient is drowsy but answers questions, is receiving high-flow oxygen by NRB, and the breathing is unlabored with good chest rise. The skin is cool and mottled and the radial pulse is weak. The fingertip pulse oximeter read 96% on the first assessment and now displays an intermittent 79% while repeatedly losing the signal. The vital signs are BP 88/56 mmHg, P 124/min, and R 22/min. Which action is most appropriate?

Show the answer and rationale

Correct answer · Move the sensor to the earlobe and continue treating for shock

A pulse oximeter works only where there is enough perfusion for the sensor to detect a pulsation, so hypovolemia, severe peripheral vasoconstriction, and shock all produce inaccurate or misleading values. This patient has cool, mottled skin, a weak radial pulse, and a blood pressure of 88/56 mmHg, which is precisely the state in which a fingertip probe stops being able to read, and the intermittent value with repeated signal loss is the device saying so. The published remedy is to move the sensor to a more central site such as the earlobe or the bridge of the nose. Meanwhile the treatment is driven by the assessment rather than by the display, because the oximeter is an adjunct and not a substitute for a good assessment.

Why the others are wrong

Begin positive pressure ventilations for the falling reading: This is the misconception that a number on a monitor is by itself an indication to escalate ventilatory support. Positive pressure ventilation is indicated for inadequate breathing, and the question describes unlabored breathing with good chest rise at 22/min in a patient who is answering questions. Escalating on an unreliable reading also displaces attention from the shock that is actually driving the picture.

Record 79% as the oxygen saturation and continue transport: This is the misconception that whatever the device displays is a measurement. A reading that flickers and repeatedly drops signal has not measured anything, and entering it as the oxygen saturation puts a false value into the very trend the reassessment is being performed to build.

Replace the pulse oximeter with a different device before rechecking: This is the misconception that a device producing a bad reading must be a bad device. The limitation here belongs to the patient, not the equipment: the sensor needs a pulsating capillary bed, and vasoconstriction and low perfusion in shock remove it. A second device applied to the same cold fingertip behaves the same way, and swapping equipment costs time.

Question 7 of 10

An EMT assisted a 47-year-old patient with a prescribed albuterol metered-dose inhaler for difficulty breathing and applied high-flow oxygen. On the first assessment the patient was sitting forward with accessory muscle use, speaking three words at a time, with R 28/min, P 104/min, and SpO₂ 89% on room air. At the reassessment 6 minutes later the patient is sitting back and speaking full sentences, the accessory muscle use has stopped, the chest rise is full, and the vital signs are R 20/min, P 126/min, and SpO₂ 96% on oxygen. Which interpretation of this reassessment is most appropriate?

Show the answer and rationale

Correct answer · Improving, because the work of breathing has decreased

The purpose of reassessing an intervention is to determine whether it has been effective, and an effective intervention shows up as improvement in the patient's condition. Work of breathing is what improved here: the patient moved from sitting forward with accessory muscle use and three-word speech to sitting back and speaking full sentences, the chest rise is full, and the oxygen saturation rose from 89% on room air to 96% on oxygen. The respiratory rate fell as part of that improvement rather than as a sign of fatigue, because fatigue shows a falling rate together with decreasing effort and chest rise. The rising pulse is a recognized effect of an inhaled beta-agonist, so it is monitored but is not the reason the patient is better, and a correct reassessment reads the whole set rather than any one number.

Why the others are wrong

Improving, because the pulse rate has increased: This reaches the right conclusion for the wrong reason, which is the trap the paired options are built to expose. The rise from 104/min to 126/min is an expected effect of an inhaled beta-agonist, which can increase heart rate and cause palpitations. It is a side effect to note and monitor, not evidence that the treatment is working.

Worsening, because the pulse rate has increased: This is the misconception that a rising pulse always means a deteriorating patient. Read against the rest of the reassessment, which shows full sentences, no accessory muscle use, full chest rise, and a saturation that has risen from 89% to 96%, a pulse that climbed shortly after a bronchodilator was given is the medication, not decompensation.

Worsening, because the respiratory rate has decreased: This is the misconception created by drilling the opposite pattern: a falling respiratory rate in a tiring patient is ominous. That reading depends on the effort falling too, with shallower chest rise and a declining mental status. Here the chest rise is full and the speech has improved from three words to full sentences, so the slower rate reflects less air hunger rather than exhaustion.

Question 8 of 10

The EMT initially assessed an adult patient as stable and began reassessing every 15 minutes. At the next reassessment the patient has become confused and the skin is now pale and clammy. Which action is most appropriate?

Show the answer and rationale

Correct answer · Begin reassessing every 5 minutes because the patient is now unstable

The reassessment interval is determined by whether the patient is stable (every 15 minutes) or unstable/critical (every 5 minutes). New confusion (a change in mental status) plus pale, clammy skin indicate the patient has become unstable, so the interval shortens to every 5 minutes. This tests recognizing that acuity, not the initial plan, sets the interval; the answer is a single defensible action.

Why the others are wrong

Perform one final reassessment and then discontinue further reassessment: Reassessment continues throughout care until the patient is handed off; it is never discontinued in a deteriorating patient.

Continue reassessing every 15 minutes as originally planned: The reassessment interval is set by current patient status, not by the original plan. Once the patient becomes unstable, the interval must shorten to every 5 minutes; staying at 15 minutes would miss important trends.

Stop rechecking vital signs because the patient is deteriorating: Deterioration is exactly when vital signs and mental status must be tracked more closely, not stopped. Ongoing rechecks guide care and transport decisions.

Question 9 of 10

An EMT is transporting a stable adult patient with no complaints of deterioration. At what interval should the EMT reassess this patient during transport?

Show the answer and rationale

Correct answer · Every 15 minutes during transport

Reassessment intervals are every 15 minutes for a stable patient and every 5 minutes for an unstable or critical one. A stable patient with no complaints still gets rechecked on the 15-minute interval so any trend is caught early.

Why the others are wrong

Every 5 minutes during transport: Incorrect. Every 5 minutes is the interval for unstable or critical patients, not a stable one.

Once, at the start of transport: Incorrect. Reassessment is ongoing throughout transport regardless of stability, not a single check at the start.

Only when a new symptom is reported: Incorrect. Reassessment is proactive on a set interval; waiting for the patient to report a change misses findings the patient may not notice, such as a slowly dropping blood pressure.

Question 10 of 10

You are transporting a 33-year-old patient from a motor vehicle collision. All immediate and potential life threats have been addressed and stabilized, and the estimated time to the hospital is 20 minutes. What should you do?

Show the answer and rationale

Correct answer · Reassess vital signs every 5 minutes

This patient had life threats that needed addressing, which means he counts as potentially unstable even though those threats are now managed, and a potentially unstable patient gets vital signs reassessed every 5 minutes. That's why you recheck him every 5 minutes for the whole 20-minute ride rather than waiting longer between checks.

Why the others are wrong

Reassess vital signs every 15 minutes: You'd pick this if a patient with addressed life threats sounded fully stable. He had life threats that needed treating, which still counts as potentially unstable, so the 15-minute interval is for a patient who was stable from the start, not this one.

Wait until arrival at the hospital to reassess vital signs: You'd pick this if addressing the threats made further checks feel unnecessary. Waiting until arrival misses any trend showing his condition is changing during a 20-minute transport.

Reassess vital signs only if the patient reports new symptoms: You'd pick this if you were relying on him to flag a problem. He can be decompensating before he notices or reports anything, so reassessment can't depend on him speaking up first.

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