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10 free EMT practice questions: Shock (All Types) & Hemorrhage Control

These are real questions from the same bank the app draws from. Each one is written to the NREMT EMT content specifications and kept inside the EMT scope of practice. Pick an answer and you get the full rationale, including why the other three options are wrong.

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Question 1 of 10

A patient sustains a gunshot wound to the thigh with spurting bleeding and a separate gunshot wound to the chest that produces an audible sucking sound with each breath. Which of the following is the most appropriate order of initial EMT actions?

Show the answer and rationale

Correct answer · Apply a tourniquet first, per the trauma sequence

The tourniquet goes on first. The thigh wound has spurting bleeding, and spurting bleeding is arterial. A patient can bleed to death from an artery in the thigh in a few minutes. A tourniquet takes seconds to put on, and it controls the bleeding. That's why the trauma sequence puts massive bleeding ahead of airway and breathing. The sucking chest wound is still a real breathing problem. Air is being pulled into the pleural space through the wound with each breath. That air can build into a tension pneumothorax. The harm from the chest wound builds over minutes, not seconds. Put the occlusive dressing on the chest right after the tourniquet.

Why the others are wrong

Apply an occlusive dressing first, then a tourniquet: The occlusive dressing is the right treatment for the chest wound, and it goes on right after the tourniquet. Sealing the chest first leaves the thigh artery spurting while you expose the chest, seal the hole, and secure the dressing.

Manage both wounds simultaneously: Working both wounds at once is what happens when there are enough providers, like two crews on scene. The question asks for an order. One provider working alone has to pick an order. Splitting your attention gives each wound only part of the care it needs. The tourniquet still goes on first.

Assess the chest wound only; it is always the priority: A sucking chest wound is loud and hard to ignore. This option says the chest is always the priority, and that is wrong. Massive bleeding comes before airway and breathing in the trauma sequence, because arterial bleeding is the fastest cause of death in trauma. Looking only at the chest leaves the thigh bleeding with nobody controlling it.

Question 2 of 10

A 34-year-old patient sustains a penetrating chest wound. On assessment, there are no breath sounds on the right, distended neck veins, severe difficulty breathing, and hypotension (80/50 mmHg). The EMT suspects tension pneumothorax. Which oxygen delivery method is most appropriate?

Show the answer and rationale

Correct answer · NRB at high flow (12-15 L/min)

This patient is in obstructive shock from a tension pneumothorax. Air is trapped in the right side of the chest under pressure. The trapped air collapses the right lung and pushes on the middle of the chest until less blood can get back to the heart. That's why there are no breath sounds on the right, the neck veins are distended, and the blood pressure is 80/50. The fix is decompressing the chest, and decompression is not an EMT skill. Your job is to buy time with the one thing you control, which is oxygen. A nonrebreather mask (NRB) at 12 to 15 liters per minute gives roughly 80 to 95 percent oxygen. An NRB gives the highest concentration of oxygen an EMT can give a patient who is still breathing on their own. The extra oxygen helps a patient with only one working lung and a falling cardiac output. Along with the oxygen, transport rapidly, call for an advanced life support (ALS) intercept, and keep reassessing.

Why the others are wrong

Nasal cannula at 2-3 L/min to avoid overoxygenation: A nasal cannula at low flow is right for a comfortable patient with mild hypoxia who will not keep a mask on. A COPD patient at home on 2 liters is a good example. A stable chest pain patient with a saturation in the low nineties is another. This patient has a systolic pressure of 80 and only one working lung. There is no such thing as giving too much oxygen to a patient in shock during an ambulance transport. Holding back oxygen to avoid a harm that might happen, while a real harm is already happening, gets the priorities backwards.

BVM ventilation at 20 breaths/min with 15 L/min of oxygen: A bag-valve mask (BVM) is right for a patient whose own breathing is not enough, meaning too slow, too shallow, or absent. This patient is struggling but is still breathing on their own. Positive pressure is dangerous in a tension pneumothorax. Every forced breath pushes more air into the pleural space and raises the pressure in the chest. Higher chest pressure cuts the blood return to the heart even more. If this patient's breathing fails, you will ventilate carefully at a normal rate instead of 20 breaths a minute. You do not start with the BVM.

Room air until the paramedic arrives to decompress the chest: Room air is for a patient with no hypoxia and no shock. This patient has both. Waiting for the paramedic is not a treatment. Fill the wait with the highest oxygen you can give, and keep moving toward the hospital.

Question 3 of 10

The EMT is transporting a 56-year-old patient who initially showed signs of compensated shock: pale, clammy skin, tachycardia, and normal blood pressure. Ten minutes into transport, the EMT performs reassessment and finds the patient's blood pressure has dropped to 88/50 mmHg, mental status has deteriorated to confusion, and the patient is more diaphoretic. What does this clinical change indicate?

Show the answer and rationale

Correct answer · The patient is progressing from compensated to decompensated shock

This patient has gone from compensated shock to decompensated shock. The blood pressure has dropped to 88/50. A systolic pressure below 90 is the line between compensated and decompensated shock. The patient is also newly confused and sweating more. In compensated shock, the body releases catecholamines, which speed up the heart and tighten the blood vessels. The fast heart rate and tight vessels hold the blood pressure normal while perfusion is already falling. Once the catecholamines can no longer hold the pressure up, the systolic pressure drops. Less blood reaches the brain. That's why the patient is now confused. This patient is crashing. Keep the patient supine, keep high-flow oxygen on, and speed up transport.

Why the others are wrong

The patient is recovering; the drop in systolic pressure means his heart rate is normalizing: The heart rate does slow down as a patient truly recovers from shock. Nothing in this question shows the heart rate slowing. The lower blood pressure and the new confusion mean perfusion is getting worse, not better.

The patient is developing hypertension and will improve shortly: Hypertension means a high blood pressure. This patient's blood pressure is 88/50, which is low.

The patient's condition is stable and no change in care is needed: A stable patient has the same vital signs and mental status on each check. This patient's systolic pressure fell from normal to 88, and the patient became confused. Both changes call for more care right away, not routine transport.

Question 4 of 10

The EMT is treating a 38-year-old patient involved in a motor vehicle collision with a fractured femur. On arrival, the patient is alert but anxious and complaining of nervousness. Vital signs are BP 122/78 mmHg, pulse 110/min, respirations 20/min. Skin is pale and moist. The patient denies severe pain and is oriented to person, place, and time. How should the EMT interpret this patient's clinical presentation?

Show the answer and rationale

Correct answer · The patient is in compensated shock and requires oxygen, positioning, and continuous monitoring

This patient is in early compensated shock. The patient has a fractured femur and is anxious and nervous. The pulse is 110, and the skin is pale and moist. The blood pressure is still normal at 122/78. The fast pulse and the pale, moist skin are the body compensating to hold that blood pressure up. Give oxygen, position the patient, and keep reassessing.

Why the others are wrong

The patient is in decompensated shock and requires immediate high-concentration oxygen and rapid transport: Decompensated shock means low blood pressure or a badly altered mental status. This patient has neither. The blood pressure is 122/78, and the patient is oriented to person, place, and time. Oxygen and prompt transport are fine for any shock patient, but the decompensated label is wrong.

The patient is experiencing anxiety from the collision, and the rapid pulse and moist skin reflect an emotional response: Anxiety after a crash can speed up the pulse. Calling this an emotional response ignores the perfusion findings. A pulse of 110 with pale, moist skin in a patient with a broken femur points to early compensated shock, not anxiety alone.

The patient's blood pressure and respirations are within normal limits, indicating perfusion is currently adequate: A normal blood pressure and normal respirations can look like good perfusion. In early shock, compensation holds the blood pressure up. The pulse of 110 and the pale, moist skin show the compensation has already started.

Question 5 of 10

The EMT is transporting a 52-year-old patient with chest pain suspected to be cardiac in origin. Initial assessment shows the patient alert and oriented, with BP 134/82 mmHg, pulse 98/min, respirations 16/min, and skin warm and dry. On reassessment at 5 minutes, the patient is still alert but appears pale. The patient's skin is now cool and clammy to the touch. The patient's pulse has increased to 118/min. The patient's blood pressure is 128/80 mmHg. What is the most appropriate interpretation of these findings?

Show the answer and rationale

Correct answer · The patient is progressing toward decompensated shock despite normal blood pressure; close monitoring is warranted

This patient is in compensated shock and is heading toward decompensated shock, even though the blood pressure is still normal. On the first check, the skin was warm and dry and the pulse was 98. Five minutes later, the patient is pale, the skin is cool and clammy, and the pulse is up to 118. The blood pressure is still normal at 128/80. The faster pulse and the tighter blood vessels in the skin are holding the blood pressure up for now. The skin and the pulse change before the blood pressure drops. Keep reassessing, give oxygen, position the patient, and be ready for the patient to get worse.

Why the others are wrong

The patient's condition is stable because the blood pressure has not significantly changed: A blood pressure that barely changed can look like stability. In shock, the skin goes pale, cool, and clammy before the blood pressure ever moves. This patient's new pallor, cool and clammy skin, and rising heart rate are the early warning signs.

The vital signs show only minor changes and do not warrant urgent intervention: Small changes in the vital signs can be minor when nothing else moves. The blood pressure only went from 134/82 to 128/80, and that change is small. The skin went from warm and dry to cool and clammy, and the heart rate climbed from 98 to 118. That trend is the pattern you see before a patient decompensates, and it needs action now.

The patient's heart rate increase is a normal response to chest pain anxiety and does not indicate shock: Anxiety from chest pain can raise the heart rate. Anxiety alone does not explain skin that turned pale, cool, and clammy over the same 5 minutes. The skin change and the rising heart rate together point to worsening perfusion.

Question 6 of 10

A 45-year-old patient sustains a stab wound to the lower sternum. The EMT notes jugular vein distention and muffled heart sounds. The initial blood pressure is 116/78 mmHg. Ten minutes later, the blood pressure is 100/86 mmHg and the pulse is 128/min. Why has the pulse pressure narrowed in this presentation?

Show the answer and rationale

Correct answer · Pericardial blood compresses the heart, raising diastolic and lowering systolic pressure

This patient has cardiac tamponade. The stab wound to the lower sternum, the distended neck veins, and the muffled heart sounds all point to blood collecting in the pericardial sac. The blood in the sac squeezes the heart. The ventricles cannot fill all the way between beats, so each beat pumps out less blood and the systolic pressure drops. The body answers the falling output by constricting the blood vessels. The vasoconstriction pushes the diastolic pressure up. The blood pressure went from 116/78 to 100/86 in ten minutes. The systolic fell, the diastolic rose, and the gap between the two closed. Nothing in the field fixes tamponade. Give oxygen, treat for shock, request ALS, and get the patient to a trauma center as fast as you can.

Why the others are wrong

Reflex bradycardia is blunting the force of each ventricular contraction: Reflex bradycardia is a slow heart rate. This patient's pulse is 128, which is tachycardia. The heart is speeding up to make up for the smaller amount of blood pumped with each beat.

Ongoing blood loss from the chest wound is lowering the total volume of circulating blood: Ongoing blood loss is the usual cause of a narrowing pulse pressure in trauma. Blood loss leaves the neck veins flat. This patient's neck veins are distended, and the heart sounds are muffled. Blood is collecting around the heart, not leaving the vessels, and no external bleeding is reported.

Peripheral vasoconstriction is raising the systolic and diastolic pressures equally: Vasoconstriction is part of what is happening here. If the systolic and diastolic went up by the same amount, the pulse pressure would stay the same. This patient's systolic went down, from 116 to 100, while the diastolic went up. Only that split narrows the pulse pressure.

Question 7 of 10

A 79-year-old patient from a long-term care facility has a fever and has been increasingly weak and confused for 2 days. The skin is warm and flushed. The vital signs are BP 86/56 mmHg, P 118/min, R 24/min, and T 102.8°F. Which of the following is most likely causing this presentation?

Show the answer and rationale

Correct answer · Septic shock

This patient is in septic shock. The temperature is 102.8°F, the skin is warm and flushed, the blood pressure is 86/56, and the pulse is 118. The patient is 79, lives in a long-term care facility, and has been getting more weak and confused for 2 days. Infection plus confusion in an older adult is sepsis until proven otherwise. The infection makes the blood vessels dilate and leak. The blood pressure drops, and the heart speeds up to make up for the drop. Give oxygen, and lay the patient supine for the low blood pressure. Keep the patient warm. Request ALS for IV fluids, because refilling the vessels is not an EMT skill. Transport promptly and say "possible sepsis" in your notification.

Why the others are wrong

Cardiogenic shock: gives a low pressure and a fast pulse from a failing pump after a heart attack or from heart failure. The skin turns cool, pale, and clammy. This patient has warm, flushed skin and a fever of 102.8°F. Warm skin with a fever points to dilated vessels from an infection, not a failing pump.

Neurogenic shock: follows a spinal cord injury. The nerves that hold vessel tone stop working below the injury. Neurogenic shock gives you a low pressure with warm, dry, pink skin and a normal or slow pulse. This patient's pulse is 118, and nothing points to a spinal cord injury.

Hypoglycemia: causes an altered mental status with pale, cool, sweaty skin. No blood sugar is given in this question. The fever of 102.8°F and the warm, flushed skin point to an infection, not low blood sugar.

Question 8 of 10

An adult patient has an open, penetrating wound to the chest wall that makes a sucking sound with each breath. The EMT hears diminished breath sounds on the affected side. What is the correct EMT management of this wound?

Show the answer and rationale

Correct answer · Cover the wound with an occlusive dressing

This patient has an open pneumothorax, a sucking chest wound. The wound makes a sucking sound with each breath, and breath sounds are diminished on that side. Every time the patient breathes in, outside air gets pulled through the hole in the chest wall instead of through the airway. The air in the pleural space collapses the lung on that side. Cover the hole with a gloved hand right away. Then seal it with a vented chest seal or an occlusive dressing taped on three sides. The dressing stops outside air from coming in through the wound, and the untaped side lets trapped air escape. A dressing taped down on all four sides lets air in but not back out. That is how a sealed chest wound turns into a tension pneumothorax. Give high concentration oxygen, reassess constantly, and transport rapidly.

Why the others are wrong

Leave the wound completely uncovered to allow air to escape: Leaving the wound open lets outside air keep coming in. The sucking sound tells you air is being pulled into the chest with each breath. Without a seal, more air enters the pleural space every time the patient breathes in, and the lung collapse gets worse. A dressing taped on three sides already gives trapped air a way out.

Perform needle decompression of the affected side: Needle decompression is for a tension pneumothorax, where trapped air builds pressure until it pushes on the heart and great vessels. Nothing in this question describes a tension, like low blood pressure or distended neck veins. Needle decompression is also a paramedic skill, not an EMT skill.

Pack the wound tightly with gauze to stop air movement: Packing gauze into a wound is for heavy bleeding from a junctional wound. You cannot pack a body cavity like the chest. Gauze is not occlusive, so air keeps moving through the hole with every breath and the lung stays unprotected.

Question 9 of 10

A 59-year-old man has had severe vomiting and diarrhea for three days. He is confused and diaphoretic, with no palpable radial pulse and a blood pressure of 78/50. After administering high-flow oxygen, what should you do next?

Show the answer and rationale

Correct answer · Keep the patient warm, lay him supine, and transport rapidly

This patient is in decompensated non-hemorrhagic hypovolemic shock, which is shock from losing fluid instead of blood. He has had three days of vomiting and diarrhea. He is confused and diaphoretic, he has no radial pulse, and his blood pressure is 78/50. A pressure that low with no radial pulse tells you his body can no longer make up for the fluid he has lost. He needs his fluid replaced, and IV fluid is outside your scope as an EMT. With the oxygen running, cover him to keep him warm, lay him supine, and get him to the hospital fast.

Why the others are wrong

Withhold further treatment until the blood pressure improves: His absent radial pulse and pressure of 78/50 already tell you he is in decompensated shock. Withholding treatment until the pressure improves only lets a treatable emergency get worse.

Give the patient sips of water: Sips of water would replace fluid by mouth. This patient is confused, so he cannot reliably protect his own airway. Giving him water by mouth puts him at risk for aspiration. A patient in shock gets nothing by mouth.

Apply ice packs to the skin: Ice packs on the skin are for a patient who is overheated, like a patient in heat stroke. This patient's problem is lost fluid, not heat. Cooling the skin does nothing for the fluid he has lost. A patient in shock needs to stay at a normal body temperature, not get cooled.

Question 10 of 10

A 56-year-old man is found semiconscious by his wife. His breathing is rapid and shallow, his pulse is rapid and irregular, and his blood pressure is low. His wife says he complained of left arm pain and nausea yesterday but would not let her call 911. Which category of shock is he most likely in?

Show the answer and rationale

Correct answer · Cardiogenic shock

This patient is in cardiogenic shock. Yesterday he had left arm pain and nausea, and he would not let his wife call 911. Left arm pain and nausea are classic signs of a heart attack. A day later, the damaged heart muscle can no longer pump well enough to get blood to the rest of his body. His pulse is rapid and irregular, and his blood pressure is low. His breathing is rapid and shallow because fluid is backing up into his lungs. The pump is the problem here, not the blood volume or the blood vessels.

Why the others are wrong

Hypovolemic shock: would fit a low blood pressure and a fast pulse after blood or fluid loss. Nothing in this call points to bleeding or fluid loss. The arm pain and nausea point to his heart.

Septic shock: comes with a fever and a source of infection. His history has neither one.

Obstructive shock: comes from a tension pneumothorax, cardiac tamponade, or a large clot in the lungs. He has no injury or history that points to any of those.

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