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Free NREMT practice questionsFree EMT practice questions · Scene Size-up and Safety

10 free EMT practice questions: Scene Safety & Hazard Assessment

These are real questions from the same bank the app draws from. Each one is written to the NREMT EMT content specifications and kept inside the EMT scope of practice. Pick an answer and you get the full rationale, including why the other three options are wrong.

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Question 1 of 10

The EMT and partner arrive at a scene where a patient has been struck by a low-voltage electrical shock from a household outlet. Before entering, which is the EMT's first responsibility?

Show the answer and rationale

Correct answer · Ensure that electrical power to the scene has been cut off

Scene safety is the first responsibility on every call, and an energized electrical source is a lethal hazard to rescuers. Before any patient contact, the EMT must confirm that power to the outlet or circuit has been shut off, by unplugging the device, switching off the breaker, or having the utility company or another qualified person secure the source, or that the patient is no longer in contact with the source. A rescuer who touches an energized patient becomes a second victim.

Why the others are wrong

Apply high-flow oxygen to the patient before moving them: Applying high-flow oxygen requires touching the patient, which cannot safely happen until the electrical hazard is controlled; approaching an energized patient exposes the crew to the same current.

Check for a carotid pulse on both sides of the neck: Checking a carotid pulse is part of the primary assessment, which begins only after the scene is confirmed safe; making contact with a patient who may still be energized endangers the EMT.

Move the patient off the outlet using a dry wooden object: Moving the patient with a wooden object is legacy first-aid advice, and it still means reaching into a scene that has not been made safe; supposedly nonconductive materials can conduct when damp or contaminated, and the maneuver risks making the rescuer part of the circuit. The definitive action is to interrupt the power itself (unplug the device or shut off the breaker) before anyone closes the distance.

Question 2 of 10

An EMT arrives at a collision on a divided highway at 2200 and parks the ambulance on the shoulder with the warning lights on. Traffic continues to move in the lane beside the ambulance. Which action best protects the EMT when leaving the ambulance?

Show the answer and rationale

Correct answer · Exit through the doors on the side away from traffic

Roadway operations put the crew closer to moving vehicles than any other routine call, and the crew controls only one thing reliably: where its own bodies are. The standard practice is to keep the ambulance body between the crew and the traffic stream, which means entering and exiting on the side away from the travel lanes. Warning lights and reflective apparel make the crew easier to see, but they do not stop or redirect vehicles, and drivers tend to steer toward the lights they are staring at. Choosing the protected exit path is a hazard decision the EMT makes before ever touching the patient.

Why the others are wrong

Exit through the doors nearest the patient: Exiting through the doors nearest the patient may put the EMT directly into the travel lane depending on how the ambulance is positioned. Proximity to the patient doesn't guarantee protection from traffic.

Exit and walk along the traffic side to the rear doors: Walking along the traffic side to reach the rear doors puts the EMT in the path of moving vehicles even if the exit itself is on the protected side.

Exit only after the warning lights are switched off: Waiting until the warning lights are switched off isn't a real option on an active roadway call, and it doesn't address which side of the vehicle is safest to use.

Question 3 of 10

An EMT responds to a residence at 1830 for a 4-year-old patient bitten by the family dog. A parent meets the crew at the front door and states the dog is still loose inside the house. What should the EMT do?

Show the answer and rationale

Correct answer · Wait outside until the dog is secured in a separate room

The decisive detail is that the parent states the dog is still loose inside the house at the moment the crew arrives, meaning no barrier exists between the animal and the crew. An animal that has already bitten once has demonstrated aggression, and an unrestrained, unpredictable dog inside the structure makes the scene unsafe by definition. Scene safety comes before patient contact: the EMT must stay outside until the dog is confined in a separate room or otherwise removed, because entering with an active, uncontrolled bite hazard risks a second casualty and delays care for the actual patient.

Why the others are wrong

Enter the residence and ask the parent to hold the dog: Asking a family member to restrain an animal is reasonable once the dog is already caught and held. Here the dog is still loose when the parent opens the door, so the request puts the crew inside the house while the animal remains free, exposing them to the same hazard that already caused this call, sequenced too early.

Enter the residence with the stretcher between the crew and the dog: A stretcher can serve as a physical barrier against some animals, but a loose, already-aggressive dog inside a house can dart around or under it, so it doesn't achieve real separation and doesn't replace confining the animal before entry.

Enter the residence after confirming the dog is vaccinated: Confirming vaccination status matters for rabies risk and post-exposure treatment decisions, but it says nothing about whether the dog is currently confined, and the dog is still loose in this house, so it doesn't address the immediate physical hazard to the crew.

Question 4 of 10

An EMT crew arrives at an apartment at 0230 for a report of an unknown medical problem. Dispatch has no further information about the occupants, and the hallway is quiet. As the crew knocks and announces its arrival, where should the EMT stand?

Show the answer and rationale

Correct answer · To the side of the doorway, out of line with the door

The decisive finding is that dispatch has no information on the occupants and the call comes in at 0230 for an unknown medical problem, so the crew cannot predict what opens the door. Standing to the side, out of the door's line of fire, keeps the EMT clear of anything that comes through suddenly, whether a person, a weapon, or a collapsing body. This positioning lets you assess the opening before committing to entry, which is the priority when nothing about who's inside has been confirmed.

Why the others are wrong

Directly in front of the door with a flashlight raised: Raising a flashlight in front of the door helps you see who answers, and that instinct is real for low-light entries, but standing directly in front, with no information on the occupant, places you square in the door's line of fire if it opens fast or something comes through it.

In front of the door with the partner standing behind: Placing a partner behind the lead person mirrors real contact-and-cover teamwork, useful when backup needs to react fast. That still leaves the EMT in front squarely in the doorway's line of fire, the same exposure the unknown-occupant call cannot rule out. Cover only works when the lead person is also off to the side, not stacked straight back from the door.

In the stairwell until an occupant opens the door: Retreating to the stairwell until someone opens the door avoids the doorway entirely, but the hallway is already reported quiet and dispatch gave no threat information to justify a full retreat. It only delays contact without adding protection beyond what standing to the side already provides.

Question 5 of 10

An EMT is dispatched at 1400 to a large apartment complex for a 10-year-old patient with abdominal pain. The address given by dispatch has no matching apartment number, no one answers at the building entrance, and no one is waiting outside. What should the EMT do?

Show the answer and rationale

Correct answer · Contact dispatch to verify the location

The address dispatch gave has no matching apartment number, and no one answers or waits outside, so the crew has no confirmed location to work from. Dispatch holds the original call and the caller's callback number, letting them re-contact the caller to correct a transposed apartment number or confirm the exact address before the crew commits further. This is the only option that resolves the discrepancy in the address itself rather than guessing around it. Getting this right keeps the EMT from wasting time searching a building the patient may not even be in, and gets accurate information back fast.

Why the others are wrong

Clear the call and return to service: Clearing the call fits a scene already confirmed unfounded, not a first response to a mismatched address; nothing here shows the call is fake, so abandoning a 10-year-old with abdominal pain before dispatch even verifies the address treats an address error as a cancelled response.

Knock on apartment doors to find the patient: Knocking on apartment doors is right once the crew stands at a confirmed building and just needs the unit number. Here the address has no matching apartment number, so the crew doesn't know they're at the right building; going door to door before that's confirmed wastes time on the wrong search instead of fixing the real problem.

Wait at the entrance for someone to come out: Waiting at the entrance makes sense only if someone confirmed they were coming out to meet the crew; no one has answered and no one is waiting, so standing still just delays patient contact when a radio call to dispatch could fix the address right away.

Question 6 of 10

When does scene size-up occur during a call?

Show the answer and rationale

Correct answer · It begins before patient contact and continues throughout the call

Scene size-up starts before you ever reach the patient, built from dispatch information and what you see on approach, and it keeps running the entire call as conditions shift: a new hazard shows up, more patients are found, or the mechanism of injury changes. Because safety and situational awareness can change at any point, you never lock size-up into a single checkpoint; you keep scanning for hazards, mechanism, and resources the whole time you're on scene, so you can retreat or call for more help before anyone gets hurt.

Why the others are wrong

It occurs only once, immediately after patient contact: This pictures the quick safety check made right when reaching the patient's side, but that's only one moment inside a process that starts at dispatch and never shuts off. Size-up doesn't end once you're at the stretcher; it keeps running as conditions change.

It occurs only after the primary assessment is complete: This mirrors the real sequence, where the primary assessment does follow scene size-up, but it reverses it: size-up comes first, establishing safety, mechanism, and number of patients before the primary assessment ever begins. Placing it after the primary assessment inverts that order.

It occurs only when dispatch specifically reports a hazard: Dispatch information does shape what hazards you expect and how you stage on approach, but you perform scene size-up on every call, reported hazard or not, since dispatchers can't always know what's actually waiting for you. Skipping it without a warning risks missing hazards found only on arrival.

Question 7 of 10

A 45-year-old patient with suspected pneumonia has a fever, a cough, and difficulty breathing, and is frequently coughing up respiratory secretions. Which precautions are indicated for this patient?

Show the answer and rationale

Correct answer · Gloves, an N95 or equivalent respirator, and eye protection

Respiratory precautions are indicated when the patient has signs of respiratory infection (fever, productive cough, difficulty breathing). An N95 or equivalent respirator protects against inhaling infectious droplets/aerosols, and eye protection guards against splash exposure from frequent coughing. Standard precautions (gloves) apply throughout. A gown is reserved for anticipated substantial body-fluid contact, which is not described here.

Why the others are wrong

Gloves and eye protection only: Eye protection alone does not protect against inhaling infectious respiratory droplets; an N95 or equivalent respirator is also needed given the patient's productive cough and suspected respiratory infection.

Standard precautions only, with no respiratory protection: A patient with suspected pneumonia and a frequent productive cough is a respiratory exposure risk requiring an N95-equivalent respirator and eye protection beyond standard precautions.

Gloves, gown, and a surgical mask: A surgical mask protects others from the wearer's respiratory secretions (source control) but does not adequately protect the EMT from inhaling the patient's infectious droplets/aerosols; an N95-equivalent respirator is needed instead. A gown is not indicated absent anticipated substantial body-fluid contact.

Question 8 of 10

After caring for a patient with significant blood exposure, the EMT has worn gloves, a gown, and a mask. What is the correct sequence for removing this personal protective equipment to minimize self-contamination?

Show the answer and rationale

Correct answer · Gloves, then gown, then mask, then hand hygiene

PPE doffing (removal) order minimizes self-contamination by removing the most heavily contaminated item first while protecting mucous membranes until last. The standard sequence is: (1) gloves, the most contaminated surface, removed first so clean hands handle the remaining items; (2) gown, removed by breaking the ties and rolling it inside-out away from the body; (3) mask, removed last, touching only the ties or ear loops, since it protects the mucous membranes of the face. Hand hygiene follows complete removal. This order limits transfer of contamination from outer garments to the skin and face.

Why the others are wrong

Mask, then gown, then gloves, then hand hygiene: Removing the mask first means handling it with hands that are still gloved and contaminated, and skips removing the most-contaminated item (the gloves) first.

Gown, then gloves, then mask, then hand hygiene: Removing the gown before the gloves means contaminated gloves touch the gown ties and skin during gown removal. Gloves should come off first.

Remove all of it together, then hand hygiene: PPE must be removed in a controlled sequence, most-contaminated item first, to prevent self-contamination. Simultaneous removal increases contamination risk and complicates proper biohazard disposal.

Question 9 of 10

During a multiple-patient incident, an EMT encounters a patient who is unresponsive and initially not breathing. After the airway is opened with manual repositioning, the patient begins breathing spontaneously at 32/min. The patient has a palpable carotid pulse but no radial pulse and does not follow commands. Using START triage, how should this patient be categorized?

Show the answer and rationale

Correct answer · Red (immediate)

START algorithm for this patient: (1) Initial apnea, so check the airway. (2) After airway reposition, the patient breathes at 32/min (over 30). (3) Radial pulse absent. (4) Unable to follow commands (unresponsive). Any of these alone triggers Red; this patient has multiple Red criteria (respirations over 30, radial pulse absent, altered mental status). Red/Immediate is correct.

Why the others are wrong

Black (expectant): The patient is breathing spontaneously after airway repositioning (32/min), indicating they are salvageable. Black is reserved for patients not breathing even after airway opening or clearly deceased/expectant.

Yellow (delayed): This underestimates the patient's acuity. Yellow is for delayed (serious but stable) patients; this patient has multiple life-threat indicators requiring immediate care.

Green (minor): This patient is critically ill; Green (walking wounded) is inappropriate for an unresponsive, apneic-until-repositioned patient.

Question 10 of 10

An EMT arrives at the scene of a reported motor vehicle collision. Before making contact with any patient, which of the following must the EMT complete first?

Show the answer and rationale

Correct answer · Confirm the scene is safe to enter

Scene size-up precedes patient contact and begins with scene safety, before the mechanism of injury, patient count, or resource needs are assessed. An EMT who is injured entering an unsafe scene cannot help anyone.

Why the others are wrong

Introduce themselves and obtain consent to treat: Consent is obtained once patient contact begins, which does not happen until the scene has been confirmed safe.

Begin a primary assessment on the closest patient: A primary assessment on any patient starts after scene safety is confirmed, not before.

Determine the number of patients: Counting patients is part of scene size-up, but it comes after safety is confirmed: an unsafe scene is not entered to count patients.

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