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Free NREMT practice questionsFree EMT practice questions · Patient Treatment and Transport

10 free EMT practice questions: Pediatric, Geriatric & Special Populations

These are real questions from the same bank the app draws from. Each one is written to the NREMT EMT content specifications and kept inside the EMT scope of practice. Pick an answer and you get the full rationale, including why the other three options are wrong.

Work through all 10, then move on to the next topic. When you want the full picture, the free EMT diagnostic covers every topic in one sitting. No account needed for any of it.

Question 1 of 10

A 3-year-old has had vomiting and watery diarrhea for two days. The child is fussy but consolable, with dry mucous membranes and decreased tears. The vital signs are P 150/min, R 30/min, and BP 92/58 mmHg. Capillary refill is 3 seconds, and the skin is cool with mottling on the extremities. Which of the following best describes this child's condition?

Show the answer and rationale

Correct answer · This is compensated shock, and the normal blood pressure does not rule it out

This child is in compensated shock from fluid loss. Shock means the body is not getting enough blood flow. Two days of vomiting and watery diarrhea pulled fluid out of this child. The dry mucous membranes and decreased tears confirm the fluid loss. The pulse is 150, capillary refill is 3 seconds, and the skin is cool and mottled on the arms and legs. The fast heart rate is making up for less blood going out with each beat. The blood vessels in the arms and legs are tightening to send blood to the core. That's why the skin is cool and mottled. The blood pressure of 92/58 is normal for age. Children hold their blood pressure up until they suddenly cannot. A normal pressure tells you the compensation is still working, so the pressure cannot rule out shock. Treat this child for shock and transport.

Why the others are wrong

This is not shock because the blood pressure is within the normal range for age: Low blood pressure is a fairly reliable warning sign in adults. In a child, blood pressure is the last thing to fall. By the time the pressure drops, cardiac arrest is close behind. This child's normal pressure is part of what compensated shock looks like.

This is decompensated shock because the heart rate is markedly elevated: Decompensated shock means compensation has failed. You see a low blood pressure, a child who is hard to wake, and often a heart rate that is falling or too slow. A fast heart rate is the body still compensating. This child is fussy but consolable, and the blood pressure is normal for age.

This is dehydration without shock, and only oral rehydration is indicated: Dehydration without shock is the same illness caught earlier. That child has dry lips and fewer wet diapers, but warm pink hands and feet, fast capillary refill, and a heart rate near normal. This child has cool, mottled skin and a capillary refill of 3 seconds. Those findings mean blood flow to the skin has already dropped. Cool, mottled skin is the line between dehydration and shock. This child needs shock care and transport, not just oral rehydration.

Question 2 of 10

A 2-year-old is pulled from a swimming pool unresponsive and not breathing. The EMT opens the airway and delivers effective BVM ventilations with high-concentration oxygen for 2 minutes. On reassessment, the heart rate is 48/min and the skin is pale and cyanotic around the lips. What is the EMT's next action?

Show the answer and rationale

Correct answer · Begin chest compressions with continued ventilations

This child needs chest compressions with continued ventilations. In a child, a slow heart rate is almost always from a lack of oxygen. The first fix is oxygen and ventilation. If the heart rate stays below 60 with poor perfusion even after good ventilation, start compressions. This child has had 2 minutes of effective BVM ventilation with high-concentration oxygen. The heart rate is still 48, and the skin is pale and cyanotic around the lips. A heart rate of 48 with poor perfusion is not moving enough blood. Begin chest compressions and keep ventilating. The lack of oxygen from the drowning caused the slow heart rate, so the ventilations still matter.

Why the others are wrong

Continue ventilations alone and reassess in 2 minutes: Ventilations alone are right for the first 2 minutes. A slow heart rate from lack of oxygen often comes back up once oxygen reaches the lungs. You already gave those 2 minutes, and the heart rate is still 48 with poor perfusion. Two more minutes of ventilation alone only delays the blood flow this child needs.

Deliver abdominal thrusts for a possible obstruction: Abdominal thrusts are for a foreign body blocking the airway in a responsive patient. An unresponsive patient with a blocked airway gets compressions and a look in the mouth, not thrusts. Nothing here points to a blockage. The airway is open and the ventilations are effective, so air is going in. Drowning fills the lungs with water, and it does not plug the airway with an object.

Apply the automated external defibrillator first: An AED comes first for a sudden collapse in an older child or an adult, where a shockable rhythm is likely. A drowning arrest in a child comes from lack of oxygen, and those rhythms are almost never shockable. This child also still has a pulse of 48. There is no arrest rhythm for the AED to analyze yet.

Question 3 of 10

An EMT is performing abdominal thrusts on a 5-year-old child with a severe airway obstruction. The child suddenly becomes unresponsive and stops making any sound. What is the EMT's next action?

Show the answer and rationale

Correct answer · Begin chest compressions with a mouth check before each ventilation

This child has a severe airway obstruction and is now unresponsive. A responsive child gets abdominal thrusts. Once the child goes unresponsive, you switch to chest compressions. Lower the child to a firm, flat surface and start compressions. In an unresponsive patient, compressions make higher and steadier pressure in the airway than thrusts do. Compressions also move blood, and this child may be going into arrest from the lack of oxygen. Before each breath, open the airway and look in the mouth. The compressions may have pushed the object up where you can see it. Remove the object only if you can see it and hook it out.

Why the others are wrong

Continue delivering abdominal thrusts with the child positioned supine: Abdominal thrusts are right for a responsive child. This child just lost consciousness. In an unresponsive patient, thrusts work less well, are harder to do right, and move no blood. This child's heart may be about to stop from the lack of oxygen.

Deliver alternating back blows and chest thrusts as used for an infant: Back blows and chest thrusts are for a responsive infant under one year old. An infant gets a different technique because abdominal thrusts can injure an infant's liver and spleen. This patient is 5 years old. More important, this child is now unresponsive, and an unresponsive patient of any age gets chest compressions.

Perform a blind finger sweep of the mouth before starting compressions: Blind finger sweeps are never done, at any level and at any age. A finger sweeping through a mouth you cannot see into can push the object deeper and wedge it tighter in a small airway. Look in the mouth, and take the object out only when you can see it.

Question 4 of 10

An EMT forms a general impression of a pediatric patient using only sight and sound, without touching the child. What is this assessment tool called?

Show the answer and rationale

Correct answer · The pediatric assessment triangle

This is the pediatric assessment triangle. The question says you form the impression using only sight and sound, without touching the child. The pediatric assessment triangle is done completely hands off. The triangle has three sides: appearance, work of breathing, and circulation to the skin. You read all three from across the room. You watch the child's color, muscle tone, breathing effort, and posture before you ever touch the child. The pediatric assessment triangle gives you a general impression in the first few seconds. That impression tells you whether to approach calmly or move straight to aggressive care.

Why the others are wrong

The Glasgow Coma Scale: grades level of consciousness, not a general impression. The Glasgow Coma Scale scores eye opening, verbal response, and motor response. To score the motor response, you have to apply a stimulus and watch what the patient does. Applying a stimulus is a hands-on step. The question describes an assessment done without touching the child.

The SAMPLE history: for gathering a history. SAMPLE stands for signs and symptoms, allergies, medications, pertinent past history, last oral intake, and events leading up to the incident. The SAMPLE history is a verbal interview, not a general impression from sight and sound.

The rapid trauma assessment: a hands-on, head-to-toe check for injuries on a trauma patient. You have to touch the child to do a rapid trauma assessment. The question describes a tool that is done without touching.

Question 5 of 10

A 78-year-old patient with chronic arthritis accidentally took a double dose of pain medication this morning, having forgotten it had already been taken. The patient is now drowsy, confused, and breathing shallowly. The patient's daughter found the empty medication bottle. Vital signs are P 108/min, R 8/min, BP 88/54 mmHg, SpO₂ 88%. What is the EMT's primary concern for this patient?

Show the answer and rationale

Correct answer · Medication toxicity with respiratory depression

This patient has medication toxicity with respiratory depression. The patient took a double dose of pain medication and is now breathing 8 times a minute, with shallow breaths and an SpO2 of 88%. Opioid pain medicines slow down the breathing center in the brainstem. The brainstem stops responding to the CO2 building up in the blood. The patient breathes too slowly and too shallowly, so oxygen drops and CO2 climbs. The drowsiness and confusion come from the low oxygen and high CO2, not from a stroke or other brain problem. The overdose also depresses the nervous system enough to drop the blood pressure to 88/54. Breathing this slow kills before the low blood pressure does, so support the breathing first. Ventilate with a bag-valve mask, give oxygen, give naloxone if your protocol allows, and transport fast.

Why the others are wrong

Acute stroke causing the confusion and drowsiness: A stroke shows up with a focal deficit, like facial droop, arm drift, or slurred speech on the FAST screen. This patient has none of those. The drowsiness here affects the whole patient and came after a double dose, with a respiratory rate of 8.

Diabetic emergency producing the altered mental status: Hypoglycemia causes altered mental status, and it usually comes with a fast pulse and sweaty skin. Hypoglycemia does not explain a respiratory rate of 8. The empty pill bottle and the double dose point to the medication as the cause of the altered mental status.

Heart failure explaining the low oxygen saturation: Heart failure can drop the SpO2 too, because fluid in the lungs gets in the way of oxygen. Heart failure makes patients breathe fast, with crackles and jugular vein distension. This patient is breathing 8 times a minute. Breathing that slow comes from the medication slowing the brain's drive to breathe, so the low SpO2 traces back to the overdose.

Question 6 of 10

An EMT responds to a nursing home for an 87-year-old patient with dementia who is not eating and appears "off" to the nursing staff. The patient is confused and unable to provide reliable history. What is the most appropriate action regarding mental status assessment?

Show the answer and rationale

Correct answer · Ask nursing home staff about the patient's normal baseline cognitive function, since confusion may be baseline

Ask the nursing home staff what this patient is normally like. The staff say the patient is not eating and seems "off" to them. The staff are telling you something has changed from this patient's normal. Dementia gives a patient confusion that is always there. A new medical problem can add new confusion on top of the dementia. This new confusion is called delirium. A urinary tract infection, dehydration, hypoglycemia, or sepsis can all cause delirium. You cannot tell old confusion from new confusion on your own. The staff see this patient every day, and they can tell you. If the confusion is new, you are looking at an acute medical emergency. You treat and transport with more urgency. Without that answer, a real change can get written off as just the dementia.

Why the others are wrong

Document the patient's current mental status as the baseline and assume any confusion is new: Writing down what you find as the baseline makes sense when nobody can tell you anything about the patient. Here the staff already told you this patient is not eating and seems "off" to them. The staff have a normal to compare against, and you have not asked for it yet. Calling today's confusion the baseline can hide a new medical problem behind the dementia.

Skip the mental status assessment entirely, as the patient cannot provide reliable information: This patient cannot give you a reliable history. The staff who see this patient every day can. Skipping the mental status assessment throws away information that is right there in the building.

Transport the patient immediately without establishing baseline, as this will be determined at the hospital: Fast transport is right once you suspect a new change. Finding out the baseline takes one quick question to the staff. The hospital will want that answer too, and asking costs you almost no time on scene.

Question 7 of 10

The EMT is called to the home of a 7-month-old infant who is choking on a piece of food. The infant is crying weakly and is unable to cough effectively. What is the correct first-line sequence to relieve the airway obstruction?

Show the answer and rationale

Correct answer · Perform five back blows followed by five chest thrusts

This infant has a severe airway obstruction. The infant is 7 months old, the cry is weak, and the cough is not working. A weak cry and a cough that does not work tell you very little air is getting past the food. In an infant under 1 year old, the liver and spleen sit high and are not covered by the ribs. Abdominal thrusts can tear them. Chest thrusts push down on the lower sternum instead. Each chest thrust raises the pressure inside the chest. That pressure forces air and the object out, the same way an abdominal thrust does in an adult. Give five back blows, then five chest thrusts. Keep alternating until the object comes out or the infant becomes unresponsive.

Why the others are wrong

Perform five back blows followed by five abdominal thrusts: Abdominal thrusts, the Heimlich maneuver, are the standard for a conscious patient over 1 year old. This infant is 7 months old. The liver and spleen are not protected by the rib cage, so abdominal thrusts can injure them instead of clearing the airway.

Perform five abdominal thrusts followed by blind finger sweeps: The abdominal thrusts here carry the same risk of organ injury in this 7-month-old. Blind finger sweeps used to be taught, and they are not anymore. A finger sweep done without seeing the object can push the object deeper and make the blockage worse.

Perform back blows only and proceed directly to CPR if the object is not expelled: Back blows are the right first step, but they are only half of the cycle. An infant gets five back blows and then five chest thrusts. Going straight to CPR skips the chest thrusts. CPR starts once the infant becomes unresponsive, and CPR does not replace the chest thrusts.

Question 8 of 10

A 4-year-old child was struck by a car and is alert and crying, with minor trauma to the right lower leg. The vital signs are BP 90/58 mmHg, P 150/min, and R 32/min, with a capillary refill of 3 seconds. The skin is cool and pale. Which of the following best describes this child's perfusion status?

Show the answer and rationale

Correct answer · Compensated shock; the pulse and respirations are abnormal for a 4-year-old

This child is in compensated shock. The blood pressure is 90/58, and a systolic of 90 is still normal for a 4-year-old. The pulse of 150 and the respirations of 32 are not normal for a 4-year-old. The body is releasing catecholamines. Catecholamines speed up the heart and the breathing and pull blood away from the skin. That's why the skin is cool and pale and capillary refill is 3 seconds. The fast heart rate and tight vessels hold the core blood pressure normal while the child keeps losing blood. Treat this child aggressively now. Give high-flow oxygen, keep the child warm, and transport rapidly. Once the blood pressure falls, the child is in decompensated shock and you have far less time to act.

Why the others are wrong

Hypotensive shock requiring immediate intravenous fluids and rapid transport: Hypotensive shock means the systolic pressure has dropped below the normal range for age. This child's pressure of 90/58 is still normal for a 4-year-old, so the shock has not reached that point yet.

Decompensated shock with altered mental status requiring airway intervention: Decompensated shock shares the fast pulse, the fast breathing, and the cool, pale skin you see here. Altered mental status with airway management would fit a child who has decompensated. This child is alert and crying, and the blood pressure is still 90/58. Both of those findings tell you the body is still compensating.

Normal vital signs for a 4-year-old in pain; no evidence of shock: Pain can raise a child's heart rate and breathing some. A pulse of 150, respirations of 32, and a 3 second capillary refill with cool, pale skin are more than pain can explain. Those are signs of poor perfusion, not simple anxiety.

Question 9 of 10

An 81-year-old patient called for EMS reporting general malaise, nausea, and fatigue that started this morning, and denies chest pain or difficulty breathing. The vital signs are BP 132/74 mmHg, P 88/min, R 16/min, and SpO₂ 94%. The patient is alert but quiet, diaphoretic, and slightly anxious, and takes aspirin, metoprolol, lisinopril, atorvastatin, omeprazole, sertraline, and metformin. The EMT suspects acute coronary syndrome despite the absence of chest pain. Which of the following best explains why this geriatric patient may present with atypical symptoms?

Show the answer and rationale

Correct answer · Atypical or absent chest pain is common in geriatric acute coronary syndrome; malaise and nausea may be the only signs

Acute coronary syndrome in older patients often comes with little or no chest pain. This 81-year-old has malaise, nausea, and fatigue that started this morning, with no chest pain. The patient is also diaphoretic and anxious. Aging dulls the heart's pain signals in a few ways. Autonomic neuropathy dulls the nerves that carry pain from the heart. Earlier silent ischemia can damage the pain fibers. The body also makes less of an inflammatory response to the injured heart muscle. The sympathetic signs still show up even when the pain does not. That's why this patient is sweating and anxious with no chest pain. This patient needs the same care as any ACS patient. Get a 12-lead, give aspirin, give oxygen if it is needed, and transport with the same urgency as a classic heart attack.

Why the others are wrong

Elderly patients have stronger pain tolerance and rarely experience true chest pain during a heart attack: Older patients often report less pain for the same amount of heart damage. The cause is changed pain signaling from autonomic neuropathy, not a higher pain tolerance. This patient's sweating and anxiety show the sympathetic response is still working. Calling the missing pain a stronger tolerance gives the wrong reason.

Nausea and fatigue are normal for any 81-year-old and do not warrant concern: Nausea and fatigue alone are common in older patients and can be harmless. This patient also has diaphoresis and anxiety, and the symptoms started suddenly this morning. Together those findings should raise your concern for ACS. Writing them off as normal aging skips looking for the cause.

The patient's medications, especially metoprolol and lisinopril, completely mask the symptoms: Beta blockers like metoprolol blunt a fast heart rate and the sympathetic surge, and a heart rate of only 88 fits that. Metoprolol and lisinopril control heart rate and afterload over time. They do not wipe out pain signals, and "completely mask" overstates what they do. The missing chest pain comes from age-related nerve changes, not from the medication list.

Question 10 of 10

A 3-year-old patient is fussy but consolable and makes eye contact with the caregiver. The EMT notes nasal flaring and subcostal retractions with a respiratory rate of 32/min. The skin is pink, warm, and dry, and capillary refill is less than 2 seconds. Using the pediatric assessment triangle, which of the following is the most accurate interpretation of these findings?

Show the answer and rationale

Correct answer · The abnormal breathing side alone signals a problem

This child has a breathing problem. The pediatric assessment triangle has three sides: appearance, work of breathing, and circulation to the skin. You judge all three by looking, before you touch the child. Each side is judged on its own. One abnormal side is enough to tell you there is a problem, even when the other two are normal. This child has nasal flaring and subcostal retractions. Flaring and retractions show increased work of breathing. The appearance side is normal, because the child is consolable and makes eye contact. The circulation side is normal, because the skin is pink. Two or more abnormal sides would mean the child is seriously ill.

Why the others are wrong

Two of three normal sides mean the child is stable: Two normal sides sound reassuring. The sides are not added up, and one abnormal side is enough to call a problem. This child's work of breathing is abnormal, so the child is not stable.

Normal appearance means the child is stable: A normal appearance is a good sign in a child. This child's flaring and retractions still show a breathing problem, so the child is not stable.

All three sides must be abnormal to signal a problem: Waiting for all three sides to turn abnormal sets the bar too high. A single abnormal side, like the flaring and retractions here, is enough by itself. Two abnormal sides already mean a seriously ill child.

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