Skip to content
Free NREMT practice questionsFree EMT practice questions · Patient Treatment and Transport

10 free EMT practice questions: Pediatric, Geriatric & Special Populations

These are real questions from the same bank the app draws from. Each one is written to the NREMT EMT content specifications and kept inside the EMT scope of practice. Pick an answer and you get the full rationale, including why the other three options are wrong.

Work through all 10, then move on to the next topic. When you want the full picture, the free EMT diagnostic covers every topic in one sitting. No account needed for any of it.

Question 1 of 10

A 3-year-old has had vomiting and watery diarrhea for two days. The child is fussy but consolable, with dry mucous membranes and decreased tears. The vital signs are P 150/min, R 30/min, and BP 92/58 mmHg. Capillary refill is 3 seconds, and the skin is cool with mottling on the extremities. Which of the following best describes this child's condition?

Show the answer and rationale

Correct answer · This is compensated shock, and the normal blood pressure does not rule it out

Shock is inadequate perfusion, and it is staged by whether compensation is still holding, not by how sick the patient looks. Everything in this question is compensation doing its job: a heart rate of 150 in a 3-year-old making up for lost stroke volume, capillary refill at 3 seconds, and cool, mottled extremities from vasoconstriction pulling blood out of the periphery to protect the core. Two days of vomiting and watery diarrhea supplies the volume loss, and the dry mucous membranes and decreased tears confirm it. The blood pressure of 92/58 is the trap. Children hold their pressure through these mechanisms until they abruptly cannot, so a normal-for-age blood pressure is evidence that compensation is intact, not evidence that shock is absent.

Why the others are wrong

This is not shock because the blood pressure is within the normal range for age: This is the most common pediatric error in EMS, and it comes from adult-shaped thinking where hypotension is a fairly reliable alarm bell. In a child, blood pressure is the last parameter to fall, and by the time it does, arrest is close behind. The key reads that same normal blood pressure as the definition of compensated shock rather than as an all-clear.

This is decompensated shock because the heart rate is markedly elevated: Decompensated shock is real, and this child can get there, but the label is defined by compensation failing, which shows up as hypotension, obtundation, and often a falling or inappropriately slow heart rate. A high heart rate is compensation succeeding, not failing, and this child is fussy but consolable rather than unresponsive. The key names the stage the findings actually match, while this one skips ahead on the wrong criterion.

This is dehydration without shock, and only oral rehydration is indicated: This would be the right read on the same illness caught earlier: dry lips, fewer wet diapers, but warm pink extremities, brisk capillary refill, and a heart rate near baseline. Cool, mottled skin with a 3-second refill means perfusion has already fallen off, and that is the line between dehydration and shock. The key crosses that line, and what follows is shock management and transport rather than a cup of oral rehydration solution.

Question 2 of 10

A 2-year-old is pulled from a swimming pool unresponsive and not breathing. The EMT opens the airway and delivers effective BVM ventilations with high-concentration oxygen for 2 minutes. On reassessment, the heart rate is 48/min and the skin is pale and cyanotic around the lips. What is the EMT's next action?

Show the answer and rationale

Correct answer · Begin chest compressions with continued ventilations

In a child, bradycardia is almost always a breathing problem before it is a heart problem, because hypoxia is what slows the pediatric heart, and the fix is oxygen and ventilation. That rule comes with a hard stop attached: if the heart rate stays below 60 with signs of poor perfusion despite effective ventilation and oxygenation, compressions begin. This patient has had two full minutes of effective BVM ventilation with high-concentration oxygen, and the rate is 48 with pale skin and cyanosis around the lips, which is poor perfusion and no response. At that point the heart is no longer moving enough blood to count as a working pulse, so chest compressions with continued ventilations start now. Ventilation continues alongside the compressions, because the hypoxia that caused this is still the underlying problem.

Why the others are wrong

Continue ventilations alone and reassess in 2 minutes: Continuing ventilations alone and reassessing is exactly right during the first two minutes, when hypoxic bradycardia usually corrects itself once oxygen reaches the lungs. That is what the EMT already did, and the reassessment is the whole point of the question: it was performed, and the answer came back 48 with poor perfusion. Repeating an intervention that has already failed for two minutes only delays the circulation this child no longer has, while the key adds the step the reassessment criteria call for.

Deliver abdominal thrusts for a possible obstruction: Abdominal thrusts belong to a witnessed foreign body obstruction in a responsive patient, and even then an unresponsive patient gets compressions and an airway look rather than thrusts. Nothing here suggests obstruction, since the airway was opened and the ventilations are described as effective, which by definition means air is going in. Drowning fills the lungs with water; it does not plug the airway with an object, so the key treats the failing circulation rather than a blockage that is not there.

Apply the automated external defibrillator first: The AED is the right first move for a witnessed sudden collapse in an older child or an adult, where a shockable rhythm is likely from the start. Pediatric drowning arrest is hypoxic, and hypoxic arrests are overwhelmingly non-shockable, so oxygenation and compressions are the treatment that works. This child also still has a pulse at 48, so there is no arrest rhythm to analyze yet, and the key starts moving blood instead of pausing to look for a rhythm that is very unlikely to be present.

Question 3 of 10

An EMT is performing abdominal thrusts on a 5-year-old child with a severe airway obstruction. The child suddenly becomes unresponsive and stops making any sound. What is the EMT's next action?

Show the answer and rationale

Correct answer · Begin chest compressions with a mouth check before each ventilation

Airway obstruction management splits on one question: is the patient responsive or not. A responsive child with a severe obstruction gets abdominal thrusts. The instant they go unresponsive, the technique changes to chest compressions, so the child is lowered to a firm flat surface and compressions begin. Compressions generate higher and more consistent airway pressure than thrusts do in an unresponsive patient, and they also circulate blood in a patient who may be arresting from the hypoxia. Before each attempt to ventilate, open the airway and look in the mouth, removing the object only if it is visible and can be hooked out. That is exactly why the mouth check is tied to the ventilation step, because the compressions may have moved the object up into view.

Why the others are wrong

Continue delivering abdominal thrusts with the child positioned supine: Abdominal thrusts are the correct technique, right up until the patient loses consciousness, which is what just happened in this question. In an unresponsive patient thrusts are less effective, harder to deliver well, and provide no circulation to a child whose heart is about to stop from hypoxia. The key switches to the technique that both works on the obstruction and supports perfusion.

Deliver alternating back blows and chest thrusts as used for an infant: Back blows alternating with chest thrusts is the right sequence for a responsive infant under one year, where abdominal thrusts risk injury to the liver and spleen. This patient is five years old, and more decisively, is now unresponsive, at which point the age-specific responsive technique stops being the question. The key uses the unresponsive pathway, which converges on compressions regardless of age.

Perform a blind finger sweep of the mouth before starting compressions: Blind finger sweeps are prohibited at every level and every age. Sweeping a finger through a mouth you cannot see into pushes the object deeper and wedges it more firmly in an airway that is already small. The key permits a look and a removal only when the object is actually visible, which is the safe version of the same instinct.

Question 4 of 10

An EMT forms a general impression of a pediatric patient using only sight and sound, without touching the child. What is this assessment tool called?

Show the answer and rationale

Correct answer · The pediatric assessment triangle

The key detail is "without touching the child": that hands-off, sight-and-sound approach is exactly what the pediatric assessment triangle uses. Its three sides, appearance, work of breathing, and circulation to the skin, are all read from across the room by watching color, tone, effort, and posture, before you ever lay a hand on the patient. This lets you form a general impression and set your priority in the first seconds, driving whether you approach calmly or move straight to aggressive management.

Why the others are wrong

The Glasgow Coma Scale: It's the standard tool for grading level of consciousness. The Glasgow Coma Scale scores Eye opening, Verbal response, and Motor response, and the motor score requires applying a stimulus to see the response. That hands-on step contradicts the no-touch method described, and GCS answers a different question than a general impression.

The SAMPLE history: This fits when the question hints at gathering history. SAMPLE stands for Signs and symptoms, Allergies, Medications, Pertinent past history, Last oral intake, and Events leading to the incident, a verbal interview, not the sight-and-sound impression asked about here.

The rapid trauma assessment: This belongs to a trauma patient needing a hands-on exam. The rapid trauma assessment is a physical, head-to-toe check for injuries, which requires touching the child, the opposite of the hands-off tool the question describes.

Question 5 of 10

A 78-year-old patient with chronic arthritis accidentally took a double dose of pain medication this morning, having forgotten it had already been taken. The patient is now drowsy, confused, and breathing shallowly. The patient's daughter found the empty medication bottle. Vital signs are P 108/min, R 8/min, BP 88/54 mmHg, SpO₂ 88%. What is the EMT's primary concern for this patient?

Show the answer and rationale

Correct answer · Medication toxicity with respiratory depression

The respiratory rate of 8/min is the finding that decides this: opioid-class analgesics used for chronic arthritis suppress the medullary respiratory center, blunting the brainstem's response to rising CO2, so the patient hypoventilates, drops SpO2 to 88%, and becomes hypotensive from combined CNS depression. Confusion and drowsiness follow from the resulting hypoxia and hypercapnia, not a primary neuro event. This changes management: ventilatory support (BVM, supplemental oxygen, naloxone per protocol) and rapid transport take priority over any workup, since untreated bradypnea kills before hypotension does.

Why the others are wrong

Acute stroke causing the confusion and drowsiness: Acute stroke shows up as a focal deficit, facial droop, arm drift, or slurred speech under the Face, Arm, Speech, Time mnemonic, and this patient has none of that, only global drowsiness tied to a witnessed double dose and a respiratory rate of 8.

Diabetic emergency producing the altered mental status: Diabetic emergency, especially hypoglycemia, causes altered mental status but comes with tachycardia and diaphoresis, not a respiratory rate of 8/min and an empty pill bottle pointing straight to the medication as the cause of the AMS instead of the glucose.

Heart failure explaining the low oxygen saturation: The SpO2 of 88% makes heart failure worth considering, since pulmonary edema drops oxygenation too, but heart failure drives hypoxia through tachypnea, crackles, and jugular venous distension, the opposite of this patient's respiratory rate of 8/min. That bradypnea comes from CNS depression suppressing the drive to breathe, so the low saturation traces to the overdose.

Question 6 of 10

An EMT responds to a nursing home for an 87-year-old patient with dementia who is not eating and appears "off" to the nursing staff. The patient is confused and unable to provide reliable history. What is the most appropriate action regarding mental status assessment?

Show the answer and rationale

Correct answer · Ask nursing home staff about the patient's normal baseline cognitive function, since confusion may be baseline

The staff report that this patient is not eating and "appears off," a change from her usual presentation, and that's the detail that decides the answer. Dementia gives her a chronic baseline level of confusion, but an acute insult, a urinary tract infection, dehydration, hypoglycemia, or sepsis, can layer a new delirium on top of that baseline. Only someone who knows her normal cognitive function day to day can tell you whether this confusion is old or new. Getting that history changes your index of suspicion for an acute medical emergency and drives how urgently you treat and transport her, instead of writing off a real change as "just her dementia."

Why the others are wrong

Document the patient's current mental status as the baseline and assume any confusion is new: Recording whatever mental status you find on scene as the baseline is reasonable when no history exists at all, but here the staff themselves flagged that she's not eating and seems "off," meaning they already have a reference point you haven't asked for. Locking in today's confusion as normal risks burying a genuine acute change inside a diagnosis of dementia.

Skip the mental status assessment entirely, as the patient cannot provide reliable information: It's true she can't give you reliable history herself, but the people who see her daily can, so skipping the assessment throws away information that's sitting right in front of you at the nursing home.

Transport the patient immediately without establishing baseline, as this will be determined at the hospital: Rapid transport is appropriate once you suspect an acute change, but leaving baseline undetermined skips a quick question you have time to ask on scene, information the hospital will want and that costs you nothing to gather before you go.

Question 7 of 10

The EMT is called to the home of a 7-month-old infant who is choking on a piece of food. The infant is crying weakly and is unable to cough effectively. What is the correct first-line sequence to relieve the airway obstruction?

Show the answer and rationale

Correct answer · Perform five back blows followed by five chest thrusts

The infant is 7 months old with a weak cry and ineffective cough, findings that classify this as a severe foreign body airway obstruction in an infant under 1 year of age. At this age the abdominal organs, especially the liver and spleen, sit high and unprotected, so abdominal thrusts risk laceration. Chest thrusts generate the same increase in intrathoracic pressure abdominal thrusts would produce in an adult, using downward compressions over the lower sternum to force air and the object out. This decides the treatment: alternate five back blows with five chest thrusts until the airway clears or the infant becomes unresponsive.

Why the others are wrong

Perform five back blows followed by five abdominal thrusts: This comes from adult and child choking protocol, where abdominal thrusts, the Heimlich maneuver, are standard for a conscious victim over age 1. This infant is 7 months old: an infant's liver and spleen sit unprotected by the rib cage, so abdominal thrusts risk internal injury instead of relief.

Perform five abdominal thrusts followed by blind finger sweeps: This mixes two outdated ideas: abdominal thrusts, which carry the same organ injury risk in this 7-month-old as option A, plus blind finger sweeps, once taught but now discouraged because a sweep performed without seeing the object can push it deeper into the airway and worsen the obstruction rather than clear it.

Perform back blows only and proceed directly to CPR if the object is not expelled: Back blows alone are the correct first step but stop the sequence short of complete: infant relief calls for five back blows alternated with five chest thrusts, not blows only. Jumping straight to CPR after failed back blows skips the required chest thrust cycle, and CPR is reserved for once the infant becomes unresponsive, not as a substitute for it.

Question 8 of 10

A 4-year-old child was struck by a car and is alert and crying, with minor trauma to the right lower leg. The vital signs are BP 90/58 mmHg, P 150/min, and R 32/min, with a capillary refill of 3 seconds. The skin is cool and pale. Which of the following best describes this child's perfusion status?

Show the answer and rationale

Correct answer · Compensated shock; the pulse and respirations are abnormal for a 4-year-old

The systolic blood pressure of 90 mmHg is the deciding number: it sits within the normal range for a 4-year-old, so the shock is still compensated rather than decompensated. Physiologically, catecholamine release drives the heart rate to 150 and respirations to 32 while shunting blood away from the skin, producing the cool, pale color and the 3-second capillary refill, all to keep the core pressure normal despite ongoing blood loss. For you, this means treating aggressively now, giving high-flow oxygen, keeping the child warm, and arranging rapid transport, because once that pressure falls, the child has crossed into decompensated shock with far less time to act.

Why the others are wrong

Hypotensive shock requiring immediate intravenous fluids and rapid transport: Hypotensive shock applies once systolic pressure actually drops below the expected range for age. This child's blood pressure of 90/58 is still normal, so the shock has not decompensated to that point yet.

Decompensated shock with altered mental status requiring airway intervention: Decompensated shock looks tempting since it shares the same tachycardia, tachypnea, and cool, pale skin seen here, and it correctly pairs altered mental status with airway management, but this child is alert and crying with a blood pressure of 90/58, both signs that compensation is still holding and shock has not progressed to that stage.

Normal vital signs for a 4-year-old in pain; no evidence of shock: Pain alone can raise a child's heart rate and respirations somewhat, but a pulse of 150, respirations of 32, and a 3-second capillary refill with cool, pale skin exceed normal variation and point to poor perfusion, not simple anxiety.

Question 9 of 10

An 81-year-old patient called for EMS reporting general malaise, nausea, and fatigue that started this morning, and denies chest pain or difficulty breathing. The vital signs are BP 132/74 mmHg, P 88/min, R 16/min, and SpO₂ 94%. The patient is alert but quiet, diaphoretic, and slightly anxious, and takes aspirin, metoprolol, lisinopril, atorvastatin, omeprazole, sertraline, and metformin. The EMT suspects acute coronary syndrome despite the absence of chest pain. Which of the following best explains why this geriatric patient may present with atypical symptoms?

Show the answer and rationale

Correct answer · Atypical or absent chest pain is common in geriatric acute coronary syndrome; malaise and nausea may be the only signs

The decisive finding is the absence of chest pain alongside diaphoresis, anxiety, and new-onset malaise and nausea in an 81-year-old patient. Aging blunts cardiac nociception through autonomic neuropathy, prior silent ischemia that damages afferent pain fibers, and a diminished inflammatory response to ischemic tissue, so the sympathetic signs, diaphoresis and anxiety, still fire even when the pain pathway does not. This tells you to treat the presentation as ACS regardless of the missing chest pain: run a 12-lead, give aspirin, apply oxygen if indicated, and transport with the same urgency as a textbook infarct.

Why the others are wrong

Elderly patients have stronger pain tolerance and rarely experience true chest pain during a heart attack: Elderly patients often report less pain with equal tissue damage. That change is altered pain perception from autonomic neuropathy, not higher tolerance, and this patient's diaphoresis and anxiety show the sympathetic response is intact. Naming it tolerance mislabels the mechanism.

Nausea and fatigue are normal for any 81-year-old and do not warrant concern: Nausea and fatigue alone are common complaints across geriatric patients and can be benign. Paired with this patient's diaphoresis, anxiety, and sudden onset this morning, they form a cluster that should raise suspicion for ACS, not get waved off as normal aging. Dismissing them treats the complaint as routine instead of investigating the cause.

The patient's medications, especially metoprolol and lisinopril, completely mask the symptoms: Beta blockers like metoprolol blunt reflex tachycardia and sympathetic surge, and a heart rate of only 88 makes that reasoning tempting, but metoprolol and lisinopril manage chronic rate and afterload; they don't erase pain signaling, and "completely mask" overstates their effect. The atypical presentation traces to age-related neuropathy, not the medication list.

Question 10 of 10

A 3-year-old patient is fussy but consolable and makes eye contact with the caregiver. The EMT notes nasal flaring and subcostal retractions with a respiratory rate of 32/min. The skin is pink, warm, and dry, and capillary refill is less than 2 seconds. Using the pediatric assessment triangle, which of the following is the most accurate interpretation of these findings?

Show the answer and rationale

Correct answer · The abnormal breathing side alone signals a problem

The pediatric assessment triangle is scored as three independent components: appearance, work of breathing, and circulation to skin, and an abnormality in any single component is enough to identify a physiologic problem, regardless of what the other two show. Nasal flaring and subcostal retractions are objective, observable signs of increased work of breathing, so this child has a respiratory problem even though appearance (consolable, good eye contact) and circulation (pink, warm, brisk refill) are both normal. Waiting for the other components to also become abnormal before treating this as significant would mean missing a child in the early, still-compensated stage of respiratory distress, which is exactly the population this quick assessment tool is designed to catch.

Why the others are wrong

Two of three normal sides mean the child is stable: The abnormal breathing side alone being the only one that needs to be abnormal doesn't apply as stated: actually any single side being abnormal, not specifically the breathing side, is enough to signal a problem.

Normal appearance means the child is stable: Normal appearance meaning the child is stable misreads the triangle. This child's appearance and circulation are both normal, but the abnormal work-of-breathing findings still identify a real problem on their own.

All three sides must be abnormal to signal a problem: Requiring all three sides to be abnormal before signaling a problem sets the bar too high: a single abnormal component, like nasal flaring and retractions here, is enough by itself, regardless of what the other two components show.

Find out which EMT topics are costing you points

Ten questions on one topic tell you about that topic. The free diagnostic covers every EMT topic and breaks your results down by topic, so you know what to drill next. No card, no signup to try it.

Take the free EMT diagnostic

More free EMT practice questions by topic