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Free NREMT practice questionsFree AEMT practice questions · Cardiology & Resuscitation

10 free AEMT practice questions: Acute Coronary Syndrome Recognition and Treatment

These are real questions from the same bank the app draws from. Each one is written to the NREMT AEMT content specifications and kept inside the AEMT scope of practice. Pick an answer and you get the full rationale, including why the other three options are wrong.

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Question 1 of 10

An AEMT is with a 90-year-old patient at an independent living apartment who has had 30 minutes of substernal chest pressure and nausea. There is no aspirin allergy, no bleeding history, and no aspirin taken today. The ambulance carries only 81 mg chewable tablets. The vital signs are BP 150/84, P 88, R 18, and SpO₂ 97% on room air. How much aspirin should the AEMT give?

Show the answer and rationale

Correct answer · Four 81 mg tablets, chewed rather than swallowed whole

This patient has a suspected acute coronary syndrome. The chest pressure and nausea have lasted 30 minutes. There is no aspirin allergy, no bleeding history, and no aspirin taken today. The adult target dose is 324 mg. Four 81 mg tablets gets you to 324 mg. The patient has to chew the tablets. Chewing dissolves the aspirin in the mouth, so the aspirin gets into the bloodstream fast. Aspirin is an antiplatelet drug, and it has to work fast because the coronary artery is closing right now. Count out four tablets, hand them over, and tell the patient to chew.

Why the others are wrong

One 81 mg tablet, swallowed whole with a sip of water: One 81 mg tablet is the daily dose for prevention. A single tablet is only a quarter of the target dose. Swallowing the tablet whole slows the aspirin down even more.

Two 81 mg tablets, swallowed whole with a sip of water: Two tablets is 162 mg, and some protocol ranges start at 162 mg. Swallowing the tablets whole slows the aspirin down. Even if your protocol starts at 162 mg, the tablets still get chewed.

Six 81 mg tablets, chewed rather than swallowed whole: Six tablets is 486 mg, which is past the target. More aspirin past 324 mg does not block more platelets in the time that matters. The extra tablets only raise the bleeding risk.

Question 2 of 10

An AEMT is treating a 92-year-old patient with an hour of substernal pressure and diaphoresis. The patient took one 81 mg aspirin tablet at breakfast four hours ago as a daily medication. There is no allergy and no bleeding history. The vital signs are BP 152/86, P 88, R 18, and SpO₂ 97% on room air. What should the AEMT do about aspirin?

Show the answer and rationale

Correct answer · Give enough chewable aspirin to bring the total up to the 324 mg target

This patient has an hour of substernal pressure and diaphoresis, which points to an acute coronary syndrome. The target aspirin dose is 324 mg total. The aspirin the patient already took counts toward that target. The 81 mg tablet at breakfast was a daily preventive dose, not a treatment dose. The morning tablet leaves this patient 243 mg short. Give three more 81 mg chewable tablets to bring the total to 324 mg.

Why the others are wrong

Give a full 324 mg on top of the tablet the patient took this morning: A full 324 mg is the right dose for a patient who has not taken any aspirin. This patient already took 81 mg this morning. A full dose on top of the morning tablet goes past the target and adds no platelet effect. The goal is to reach 324 mg total, not to give 324 mg again.

Withhold aspirin, since a dose was already taken in the last 24 hours: Holding aspirin makes sense when the patient already took a full dose. This patient took one daily 81 mg tablet. A morning dose is the reason to top up, not the reason to stop. Holding aspirin leaves this patient at a quarter of the dose that lowers the risk of dying.

Withhold aspirin until the receiving facility confirms the morning dose: Aspirin for chest pressure is time critical, and the dose does not wait for a phone call to the hospital. You already know the patient took one 81 mg tablet this morning. That history is enough to figure out the rest of the dose on scene.

Question 3 of 10

An AEMT is with an 87-year-old patient at a senior center who has 25 minutes of crushing substernal pressure, nausea, and cool damp skin. A family member states the patient came home two days ago from a hospital stay for a bleeding stomach ulcer and is still passing black stools. The vital signs are BP 128/76, P 96, R 18, and SpO₂ 96% on room air. What should the AEMT do about aspirin?

Show the answer and rationale

Correct answer · Withhold aspirin, since active gastrointestinal bleeding is a contraindication

This patient has an active gastrointestinal bleed. Active gastrointestinal bleeding is one of the few true contraindications to aspirin. The patient came home two days ago from a hospital stay for a bleeding stomach ulcer. The patient is still passing black stools. Black stools mean the bleed is still going and has not healed. Aspirin blocks an enzyme called cyclooxygenase, and that stops platelets from clumping. The block is permanent. In a gut that is already losing blood, fewer working platelets means faster bleeding. Keep the patient at rest and give oxygen if the saturation calls for it. Get a 12-lead and IV access. Transport to a hospital that can open the artery. Skip only the aspirin.

Why the others are wrong

Give the full 324 mg, since the mortality benefit outweighs the bleeding: Aspirin does lower the death rate in acute coronary syndrome, and that is why it is standard care. That benefit assumes a patient who is not bleeding. The black stools tell you this bleed has not stopped. Giving aspirin here would make the bleeding worse.

Give a single 81 mg tablet, since a low dose is safe with a bleeding ulcer: Dropping to one 81 mg tablet sounds safer. One tablet still blocks platelets. The active bleed makes any dose of aspirin wrong, not only the full 324 mg.

Withhold aspirin, since a patient over 80 carries too much bleeding risk: Age alone is not on the aspirin contraindication list. Plenty of patients in their eighties get aspirin for chest pain without a problem. What stops aspirin for this patient is the active bleed, not the age of 87.

Question 4 of 10

An AEMT is caring for an 84-year-old patient with 20 minutes of substernal pressure and nausea, and the service's monitor can both acquire and transmit a 12-lead ECG. How soon should that first 12-lead be acquired?

Show the answer and rationale

Correct answer · Within 10 minutes of first contact with the patient

Get the first 12-lead within 10 minutes of first contact. Twenty minutes of substernal pressure with nausea in an 84-year-old is acute coronary syndrome until proven otherwise. The 10 minute mark is the standard for a first tracing. A fast tracing shows the ST segments and T waves before treatment or transport time changes them. A transmitted STEMI tracing can also activate the cath lab before the patient reaches the door. Every minute of delay puts more heart muscle at risk. Getting the tracing comes before the medications and before loading the patient.

Why the others are wrong

Within 30 minutes of first contact with the patient: A 12-lead at 30 minutes is still a tracing, just a slow one. Waiting that long uses up time a patient with a real ST elevation does not have. The patient may even reach the hospital before the hospital ever sees the tracing.

After the patient has been loaded into the ambulance: You will load the patient, but loading first costs scene minutes this patient cannot afford. The tracing then gets done in a moving, vibrating ambulance instead of on a still scene.

After both aspirin and nitroglycerin have been given: Aspirin and nitroglycerin both belong on this call. Nitroglycerin can blunt the ST changes the 12-lead is meant to catch. Giving the medications first can hide the exact finding the tracing exists to record.

Question 5 of 10

An AEMT acquiring a 12-lead ECG on a patient with chest pressure has placed V1, V2, V4, and V3 and is positioning the last two precordial electrodes. Where do V5 and V6 belong?

Show the answer and rationale

Correct answer · V5 at the anterior axillary line and V6 at the midaxillary line, both level with V4

V5 goes at the anterior axillary line and V6 goes at the midaxillary line, both level with V4. V4 sits at the midclavicular line in the fifth intercostal space. V4 sets the level for the rest of the chest leads. V5 and V6 stay on that same level instead of each dropping a rib space. The chest leads trace a flat ring around the heart at one height. Each electrode looks at a different part of the heart muscle at that height. Moving V5 or V6 lower breaks that ring and changes what you see from the lateral wall.

Why the others are wrong

V5 at the anterior axillary line and V6 at the midaxillary line, in the sixth space: The anterior axillary line and the midaxillary line are right for V5 and V6. The sixth space is wrong. V4 already set the level at the fifth space. Dropping V5 and V6 lower pulls the lateral leads off that level and changes what they see.

V5 and V6 both at the midaxillary line, one in the fifth and one in the sixth space: The midaxillary line is right for V6. Putting V5 there too leaves the anterior axillary line empty. You get two views of nearly the same spot instead of a full sweep of the lateral wall.

V5 at the midclavicular line and V6 at the anterior axillary line, both level with V4: The anterior axillary line is where V5 belongs, not V6. V4 already sits on the midclavicular line, so putting V5 there doubles up that view. The whole lateral set ends up one position too far toward the middle of the chest.

Question 6 of 10

An AEMT has acquired and transmitted a 12-lead ECG on a 73-year-old patient with 50 minutes of substernal pressure and diaphoresis. The receiving physician calls back and activates the catheterization laboratory at a hospital 24 minutes away. A community hospital 7 minutes away has an emergency department but no catheterization laboratory and would have to transfer the patient. The vital signs are BP 140/84, P 94, R 18, and SpO₂ 97% on room air. Where should this patient go?

Show the answer and rationale

Correct answer · The catheterization hospital, since a transfer costs more time than the drive

This patient is being treated as a STEMI, and the physician has already activated the cath lab. The patient has had 50 minutes of substernal pressure and diaphoresis. The physician read the transmitted 12-lead and decided the artery has to be opened in the catheterization laboratory. How much heart muscle survives depends on how fast the artery gets opened. A direct trip is measured against a target of about 90 minutes from first contact to opening the artery. Going to a hospital without a cath lab first pushes that time closer to 120 minutes. A second ambulance, a second crew, and a second handoff all have to happen before anyone opens the artery. The 24 minute drive is only 17 minutes longer than the 7 minute drive. Take this patient straight to the catheterization hospital.

Why the others are wrong

The community hospital, since the closest appropriate facility rule governs: The closest appropriate facility rule is real. Appropriate means the hospital can do the procedure this patient needs. The community hospital is 7 minutes away and has no catheterization laboratory, so it cannot open the artery.

The community hospital, since the transfer can be arranged while care starts: Transfers are a real part of EMS. A transfer does not run in the background while care starts. A transfer needs a second ambulance, a second crew, and a second handoff, and the heart muscle keeps dying through all of it. The shorter first ride ends in a longer total time to opening the artery.

The catheterization hospital, unless the drive would run past 20 minutes: No fixed drive time limit decides this, at 20 minutes or any other number. What matters is the total time to opening the artery, one trip versus two. A 24 minute direct drive still beats a 7 minute drive followed by a transfer.

Question 7 of 10

An AEMT responds to an assisted living facility for an 88-year-old patient who became suddenly weak and developed difficulty breathing an hour ago. There is no chest pain, no fever, and no cough. The skin is pale and damp, the lungs are clear in all fields, and the patient has a cardiac history. The vital signs are BP 132/78, P 104, R 24, and SpO₂ 93% on room air. What should the AEMT do about supplemental oxygen?

Show the answer and rationale

Correct answer · Give oxygen titrated until the saturation reaches at least 94 percent

Sudden weakness and trouble breathing in an 88-year-old with a cardiac history is a suspected coronary event until something else explains it. The skin is pale and damp, and the lungs are clear. The saturation is 93%, below the 94 percent line where this patient needs oxygen. Titrate the oxygen up until the saturation reaches at least 94 percent, and keep it there. Do not open up a nonrebreather at full flow by reflex.

Why the others are wrong

Give high flow oxygen by NRB and leave it at 15 L per minute: High flow by NRB is a starting point for a patient in real distress. Leaving it at 15 L per minute pushes the saturation far past where it needs to be. Extra oxygen can narrow the coronary vessels.

Withhold oxygen, since the saturation is still above 90 percent: A saturation above 90 percent can look good enough. In a suspected coronary event, the number that decides oxygen is 94 percent. This patient is at 93% with a respiratory rate of 24.

Give oxygen by nasal cannula and stop once the breathing feels easier: Easier breathing is a good sign, but easier breathing is not the end point for oxygen. The patient can feel better while the saturation is still under 94 percent. Sitting the patient up can also ease the breathing, apart from anything the oxygen did. The saturation number tells you when you have given enough.

Question 8 of 10

A patient describes an hour of chest discomfort that is hard to pin down, and an AEMT notes that the skin is cool and clammy. What does that skin finding add to the picture?

Show the answer and rationale

Correct answer · It is one of the more specific field findings for a cardiac cause

Cool, clammy skin is one of the more specific field findings for a cardiac cause. This patient has an hour of chest discomfort that is hard to pin down, plus cool and clammy skin. The discomfort alone could come from muscle, lung, or gut. Cool, clammy skin comes from the sympathetic response, the body's fight or flight response. Catecholamines clamp down the vessels in the skin and turn on the sweat glands. The trigger is falling cardiac output, or the pain and fear of a heart muscle that is not getting enough blood. That skin finding pushes you to handle this as a suspected acute coronary syndrome. Give oxygen if indicated, give aspirin, get a 12-lead, and load and go instead of waiting to see.

Why the others are wrong

It confirms the patient has already reached decompensated shock: Cool, clammy skin can be part of shock, but decompensated shock takes more than the skin. You would weigh a falling blood pressure, an altered mental status, and a weak or absent peripheral pulse along with the skin. None of those are given here.

It rules out a musculoskeletal source for the discomfort entirely: A field finding can raise your suspicion for one cause without ruling out another. Musculoskeletal pain can still cause sweating through the body's stress response. Cool, clammy skin never fully rules out a muscle or bone source.

It indicates the discomfort has been present for over an hour: The skin does not tell you how long the discomfort has lasted. Sweating can start in the first minutes of an event or show up late. The hour of discomfort comes from what the patient told you.

Question 9 of 10

An AEMT transmits a 12-lead ECG to the receiving hospital eight minutes into a call for chest pressure. Why does sending the tracing that early change anything for the patient?

Show the answer and rationale

Correct answer · It starts the hospital's clock for activating the catheterization laboratory

Sending the 12-lead early starts the hospital's clock for activating the catheterization lab. The clock starts when someone at the hospital sees the tracing or hears your notification. The clock does not wait for the patient to come through the door. Chest pressure can come from a coronary artery that has narrowed or closed off. The heart muscle past that artery is not getting the oxygen it needs. This tracing went out eight minutes into the call. The hospital can read the tracing while the patient is still in the ambulance. If the tracing shows ST elevation, the cardiology team, the cath lab staff, and the room start getting ready before you arrive. The target for opening the artery is measured from first medical contact. Your part is getting the 12-lead and sending it early. Reading the tracing is the hospital's part.

Why the others are wrong

It lets the AEMT begin a treatment that protocol otherwise withholds: Aspirin, oxygen, IV access, and nitroglycerin all come from your own protocol. You give them based on the patient in front of you. None of them waits on the hospital reading a transmitted tracing. Nothing in this call ties a treatment to the transmission going through.

It shortens the ride by clearing a bed in the emergency department: Clearing a bed can follow a good early notification, but the bed is a side effect. A free bed does not make the drive any shorter. The part that takes time to put together is the catheterization team. The early tracing gets that team moving.

It replaces the radio report the crew would otherwise have to give: The radio report and the transmitted 12-lead do different jobs. You still give the radio report. The hospital's response starts when someone there sees the tracing or hears the notification. The tracing goes along with the report and does not replace it.

Question 10 of 10

An AEMT is with a 95-year-old patient who has 30 minutes of substernal pressure and a long history of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease. A home saturation log kept by a caregiver runs around 90 percent on a good day. Right now the patient is working harder than usual to breathe. The vital signs are BP 138/82, P 104, R 24, and SpO₂ 84% on room air. What should the AEMT do about oxygen?

Show the answer and rationale

Correct answer · Give oxygen titrated toward the 90 percent the home log shows

This patient with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is hypoxic and needs oxygen titrated to the patient's own baseline. The saturation is 84% on room air. The home log shows this patient runs around 90 percent on a good day. Around 90 percent is normal for this patient. The chest pressure means you are worried about the heart muscle, so you have to correct the low oxygen. Bring the saturation up toward this patient's own 90 percent. Around 90 percent also sits inside the 88 to 92 percent range used when a COPD patient's baseline is unknown. Do not chase 100 percent, and do not leave the patient at 84 percent.

Why the others are wrong

Withhold oxygen, since raising it in this disease removes the drive to breathe: Withholding oxygen comes from the old teaching that oxygen takes away a COPD patient's drive to breathe. The hypoxic drive is not real. Chronic lung disease is never a reason to withhold oxygen from a hypoxic patient. A saturation of 84% is not giving enough oxygen to the heart muscle you are already worried about.

Give oxygen by nasal cannula at 2 L and leave it there regardless of the reading: Two liters by nasal cannula is a reasonable place to start. Setting a fixed flow and walking away skips the titration this patient needs. Two liters could land this patient anywhere from the 80s to the mid 90s. Watch the saturation on the monitor and adjust the flow to reach the target.

Give oxygen only until the chest pressure itself begins to ease: The chest pressure and the oxygen level are separate problems. You titrate oxygen to the saturation reading, not to whether the pain has eased. Stopping when the pressure eases could stop the oxygen too soon. You could also miss that the saturation already reached the target or went past it.

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