10 free AEMT practice questions: Trauma Assessment and Fluid Resuscitation
These are real questions from the same bank the app draws from. Each one is written to the NREMT AEMT content specifications and kept inside the AEMT scope of practice. Pick an answer and you get the full rationale, including why the other three options are wrong.
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Question 1 of 10
An AEMT is working a critical trauma patient who has just been freed from a vehicle and is trying to keep scene time inside the Platinum 10 Minutes. Which task belongs on scene rather than en route?
Show the answer and rationale
Correct answer · Sealing an open chest wound
Four kinds of work earn you time on a critical trauma scene: securing an airway, controlling life-threatening hemorrhage, sealing an open chest wound, and extrication. Everything else happens in the back of a moving ambulance. The test for any task is simple. Ask whether the patient dies in the next few minutes without it. An open chest wound gives air a second path into the pleural space with every breath, so the seal passes that test. A splint, a line, and a set of vitals are all real care, and none of them is worth minutes that belong to a surgeon. The Platinum 10 Minutes sits inside the Golden Period, the idea that surgical care should begin within about an hour of injury, and the minutes you spend on scene come out of that hour.
Why the others are wrong
Splinting a deformed lower leg: Splinting genuinely reduces blood loss into the thigh and is the best non-drug pain control you carry, which makes it feel urgent. It is not on the list of work that earns scene time, and a splint applied en route does the same job without costing the patient minutes.
Establishing two large-bore intravenous lines: Two large-bore lines are the right plan for an unstable trauma patient, and candidates who know that reach for it here. Access is placed en route, not on scene, because fluid does not fix internal bleeding and the line will run just as well while the truck is moving.
Obtaining a complete set of baseline vital signs: A full set of vitals feels like something you owe the patient before you move, and documentation pressure pushes candidates toward it. Vitals belong in the reassessment cycle you run the whole way in, and the first set can be taken once you are rolling.
Question 2 of 10
A 44-year-old patient was crushed between two vehicles and has pelvic instability on the initial exam. There is no external bleeding and the abdomen is soft and non-tender. The heart rate is 130, the skin is pale and cool, and the radial pulse is weak. Which statement best explains these perfusion findings?
Show the answer and rationale
Correct answer · The unstable pelvis can hold an entire blood volume out of sight
When you cannot see the blood, estimate it from the mechanism and the fracture pattern. A closed femur fracture holds one to two liters in the thigh, a hemithorax holds about three liters, and an unstable pelvis can accommodate an entire blood volume. That last one is why a pelvis is the single most dangerous fracture you can palpate in the field. The abdomen is no help to you early, because it gives no reliable findings until a great deal of blood is already there, so a soft belly never buys a patient out of the bleeding category. Treat an unexplained tachycardia with a matching mechanism as hemorrhage until the hospital proves otherwise, and get a binder on that pelvis.
Why the others are wrong
The soft abdomen makes a major internal bleed unlikely, so look elsewhere: A soft, non-tender abdomen feels like real evidence, and it is the finding candidates most want to trust. The abdomen gives no reliable early findings in trauma, so it can be soft while liters accumulate, and the pelvis in this patient is a large enough reservoir on its own.
Pelvic pain alone can drive a heart rate this high through catecholamine release: Pain does raise heart rate, and a crushed pelvis hurts enormously, so this reads as a reasonable explanation. Pale, cool skin and a weak radial pulse are the clamped-down circulation of blood loss, and pain alone does not produce that combination.
With no external bleeding, the weak pulse points to a primary cardiac problem: Looking for a cardiac cause when no blood is visible is a habit that serves you well on medical calls. Here the mechanism explains everything, and a tachycardia that is a compensatory response to blood loss is hypovolemic shock with an appropriate heart rate rather than a heart problem.
Question 3 of 10
An 84-year-old patient fell down a flight of stairs and has a suspected pelvic injury with pale, cool skin and a weak radial pulse. After the second increment of isotonic crystalloid the AEMT hears new crackles at both lung bases and the patient's work of breathing has increased. What should the AEMT do next?
Show the answer and rationale
Correct answer · Slow or stop the infusion and reassess the patient
New crackles at the bases between increments are the single clearest stop sign in fluid resuscitation, because they mean the fluid you are giving has started backing up into the lungs. Slow it or stop it, then reassess. Get the sound right while you are at it: crackles are fluid in the alveoli and small airways, and rhonchi are the coarser rattle of sputum in the large airways. The two are not interchangeable, and mixing them up sends you to the wrong category and the wrong fluid decision. Older patients earn extra attention here because cardiac reserve falls with age, so they tolerate both volume loss and over-infusion worse than a younger patient does. Listen to the lungs after every increment, not once at the start of the call.
Why the others are wrong
Finish the weight-based volume, then reassess the patient: Finishing a calculated volume feels like completing the treatment, and weight-based numbers invite that kind of thinking. The volume is divided into increments precisely so that the reassessment between them can stop you early, and stopping short is a deliberate decision driven by what you just heard.
Keep the infusion running and raise the oxygen concentration: Raising oxygen is a reasonable response to increased work of breathing, and it will help the saturation for a while. It treats the symptom while the cause keeps arriving through the line, and an older patient with a failing reserve will keep declining until the fluid slows.
Change the fluid to Lactated Ringer's and continue the infusion: Lactated Ringer's is closer to plasma than normal saline and many trauma systems prefer it for large volumes, which makes this sound like a refinement. Both are isotonic crystalloid and both will back up into the lungs the same way; the problem here is the volume, not the bag.
Question 4 of 10
A 3-year-old patient was struck by a car. On arrival the child was pale with a heart rate of 160. The AEMT rechecks four minutes later and finds the heart rate is now 62 with slow, shallow breathing and no improvement in skin color. What does the change most likely indicate, and what is the priority?
Show the answer and rationale
Correct answer · Profound hypoxia; begin oxygenation and assisted ventilation now
A child raises cardiac output almost entirely by raising heart rate, so tachycardia is the warning and a rate that falls back down is not the warning going away. Bradycardia in an injured child usually means profound hypoxia, and it is a pre-arrest finding. The answer is oxygen and ventilation, immediately. Children compensate harder and longer than adults and then decompensate abruptly, which is why the slide from 160 to 62 can look so sudden. Read the whole picture rather than the number alone: the skin has not improved and the breathing has slowed, so nothing about this child is getting better. When a sick child's heart rate drops, reach for the bag, not for the reassessment clock.
Why the others are wrong
Improving perfusion; continue the current plan and reassess in five minutes: A heart rate moving from 160 toward a normal range looks like exactly what you were hoping to see, and that is what makes this the most dangerous reading of the situation. Pale skin that has not changed and breathing that has slowed say the child is worse, not better.
Rising intracranial pressure; elevate the head about 30 degrees: Bradycardia with a head strike is a real pattern worth knowing, and Cushing's changes do include a falling heart rate. Cushing's comes with a rising blood pressure, a widening pulse pressure, and irregular respirations, and in an injured child hypoxia is far and away the more common cause.
A vagal response to pain; reassess after splinting and analgesia: Pain can produce a vagal response, and a struck child certainly hurts. A vagal event is brief and self-correcting, and it does not come with slow, shallow breathing and unchanged skin color in a child who was tachycardic minutes ago.
Question 5 of 10
A 6-year-old patient fell from a second-story window onto grass. The blood pressure is 78/50, the heart rate is 148, capillary refill is 4 seconds, and the skin is pale and cool. The child answers questions slowly. How should the AEMT classify this child's perfusion?
Show the answer and rationale
Correct answer · Decompensated shock, because the systolic is below 70 plus twice the age
Pediatric hypotension thresholds are age-specific, and the one you will use most is 70 plus twice the age in years for children one to ten. For a 6-year-old patient that is 82, and a systolic of 78 sits under it. Measured hypotension is what separates the two stages, so this child is decompensated. Shock has two stages, compensated and decompensated, and there is no third one. Compensated means the body is still holding the pressure up, and decompensated means it stopped succeeding. Learn the three thresholds together: below 70 in an infant one month to one year, below 70 plus twice the age from one to ten, and below 90 over age ten. Those numbers define the decompensated stage rather than defining shock itself.
Why the others are wrong
Compensated shock, because the heart rate is still defending the pressure: A heart rate of 148 does show the child compensating hard, and compensated shock is the stage students expect in a child because children hold their pressure so long. Compensation being present and compensation being adequate are different things, and once the measured pressure falls below the age threshold the stage has changed.
Adequate perfusion, because a systolic near 80 is normal for a 6-year-old patient: A systolic in the high 70s looks normal against adult numbers, and candidates who have not learned the age formula default to adult thresholds. Children run their own thresholds, and 78 is below the 82 this child needs.
Not yet stageable, because one set of vital signs is not a trend: Trending vital signs is good practice and you should absolutely get a second set. The findings in front of you already meet the definition of the decompensated stage, and waiting for a trend before acting on 78 systolic with 4-second capillary refill costs a child time.
Question 6 of 10
An unstable trauma patient needs volume now. The AEMT can place a 20 gauge catheter in a visible hand vein immediately, or take slightly longer to place an 18 gauge in the antecubital fossa. Which statement should guide the choice?
Show the answer and rationale
Correct answer · The larger, shorter catheter in the proximal vein moves far more fluid per minute
Flow through a catheter is a mechanical question before it is a clinical one. It rises steeply with the radius of the lumen and falls with the length of the catheter, so a short large-bore catheter in a proximal vein moves far more fluid than a long narrow one in a distal vein. Remember that gauge numbers run backward: an 18 is bigger than a 20. As rough gravity figures, a 14 gauge flows on the order of 300 mL per minute, a 16 about 200, an 18 about 100, and a 20 about 60. Resuscitation means an 18 gauge or larger, two lines when the patient and crew allow it, and macrodrip tubing. Spending an extra thirty seconds for a catheter that flows nearly twice as fast is time you get back immediately.
Why the others are wrong
Catheter length matters more than lumen size, so the two sites flow alike: Length does affect flow, which is why this sounds like it has the physics right. Radius is the far stronger variable, so a wider, shorter catheter wins on both counts at once and the two sites do not flow anywhere near alike.
The smaller catheter is less likely to infiltrate under pressure infusion: Small catheters are gentler on a fragile vein, and infiltration is a real complication worth respecting. A well-seated 18 gauge in the antecubital fossa is not fragile, and choosing a catheter too small to resuscitate through trades a rare problem for a certain one.
Gauge affects medication delivery but has little effect on gravity flow: Route does matter for some medications, and candidates who think in terms of drug delivery reach for this. Gauge is precisely what governs gravity flow, and it is the reason resuscitation calls for an 18 gauge or larger rather than whatever goes in easiest.
Question 7 of 10
A 39-year-old patient with a suspected pelvic injury has a patent airway, clear and equal breath sounds, and a steady assisted ventilation rate. Over ten minutes the end-tidal carbon dioxide falls from 38 mm Hg to 27 mm Hg while the blood pressure stays at 104/70. What is the most likely explanation?
Show the answer and rationale
Correct answer · Pulmonary blood flow is falling because systemic perfusion is deteriorating
End-tidal carbon dioxide depends on exactly three things: metabolism making carbon dioxide, circulation carrying it to the lungs, and ventilation clearing it from the alveoli. Hold two of them still and the third one is your answer. The airway is patent and the rate is steady, so ventilation has not changed. Nothing here suggests metabolism dropped. That leaves circulation, and a falling value means less carbon dioxide is arriving at the lungs because blood flow fell. Capnography updates every breath while a blood pressure cuff updates every few minutes, which is why the number moved before the pressure did. Interpreting the waveform is inside your scope, unlike interpreting a 12-lead ECG, so use it as a continuous window onto cardiac output.
Why the others are wrong
The sensor has loosened and is sampling room air: Equipment failure is always worth checking and a loose sampling line really does drop the number, so this is a habit rather than an error. A dislodged sensor tends to drop the value abruptly and flatten the waveform rather than producing a steady ten-minute slide, and the rest of this patient's picture supports a real change.
Carbon dioxide production has fallen as the patient calms down: Metabolism is one of the three inputs, so naming it shows the right framework. A calmer patient does not drop carbon dioxide production by 11 mm Hg worth in ten minutes, and a pelvic injury patient whose number is sliding is far more likely to be losing blood than relaxing.
This is normal variation, and the steady pressure is the better guide: Trusting the blood pressure over a newer number is a common instinct, and the pressure here genuinely has not moved. Blood pressure is a late sign and capnography is an early one, so a steady pressure alongside a falling end-tidal value is exactly the combination that should worry you rather than reassure you.
Question 8 of 10
A 19-year-old patient was the restrained driver in a rollover motor vehicle collision and walked away from the car. The patient is alert and fully oriented, denies neck or back pain, and has an obviously deformed and very painful right forearm. There is no numbness or weakness in any extremity. The vital signs are BP 126/78, P 104, and R 18. What should the AEMT do?
Show the answer and rationale
Correct answer · Apply spinal motion restriction before moving the patient
Clearing a spine in the field rests on one idea: the physical examination is worth only as much as the patient's ability to report pain accurately. Split the patient into two branches first, before looking at any single finding, and ask whether the examination is reliable or whether something is interfering with it. A severely painful deformed forearm is a distracting injury, which means the patient's attention is captured by the arm and a spinal injury can sit there unreported. That is the trap in this scenario, because the patient walked, is oriented, denies neck pain, and has no deficit, so four findings look reassuring, but reliability is a gate rather than one vote among several and failing it stops the process regardless of what the rest of the examination shows. Anything competing for the patient's attention badly enough to mask spinal pain, whether a fracture, alcohol, or an altered mental status, means the AEMT applies spinal motion restriction and lets the emergency department clear the spine with imaging.
Why the others are wrong
Omit spinal motion restriction because the neck is not painful: Denying neck pain is meaningful only when the patient is in a position to notice it, and a deformed painful forearm is precisely what prevents that. The absence of a complaint here is not evidence of an absent injury.
Omit spinal motion restriction because the patient walked at the scene: Walking at the scene does not clear a spine, since patients with unstable fractures and even incomplete cord injuries walk. Ambulation is not one of the findings used to decide about spinal motion restriction.
Apply spinal motion restriction only if a deficit appears en route: Waiting for a deficit means waiting for the injury to become a cord injury before protecting against it. Spinal motion restriction is applied to prevent that transition, not to react to it.
Question 9 of 10
A 25-year-old patient sustained a closed fracture of the left lower leg in a bicycle crash and was splinted 45 minutes ago. The patient now reports pain far beyond what the injury first caused, and the pain worsens sharply when the toes are extended. The calf is tense and swollen, and a pulse is still palpable at the foot. What should the AEMT do next?
Show the answer and rationale
Correct answer · Loosen the splint and dressings and transport without delay
Muscle in the lower leg is packed into compartments wrapped in fascia that does not stretch, so bleeding and swelling inside one of them drives the pressure up until it exceeds the pressure in the small vessels feeding that muscle, and the muscle starves while the large artery underneath is still wide open. That is why a palpable pulse at the foot is reassuring and misleading at the same time, because pulselessness is a late finding and waiting for it means waiting until the muscle is already lost. The two findings that arrive early are both in this question: pain far out of proportion to the injury, and pain that spikes when the toes are passively extended, which stretches the muscle inside the compartment. The trap is elevation, which is the right reflex for almost every other swollen limb and the wrong one here, because raising the leg lowers the arterial pressure arriving at a compartment that is already losing that contest. Anything constricting comes off or gets loosened, the limb stays at the level of the heart, and the patient goes without delay to the facility that can release the compartment.
Why the others are wrong
Tighten the splint to limit the swelling in the calf: Tightening the splint adds external pressure to a compartment already above its own perfusion pressure. Constriction is what is being removed here, not increased.
Elevate the leg well above the level of the heart: Elevating above the heart reduces the arterial pressure reaching a compartment that is already barely winning against the swelling inside it. The limb is kept level with the heart instead, which preserves the perfusion gradient.
Apply ice packs over the calf and continue to monitor: Ice and continued monitoring treat this as ordinary fracture swelling and allow a time-critical ischemia to progress. Cold also causes vasoconstriction, which further reduces flow into a compartment that needs more, not less.
Question 10 of 10
An adult patient was pulled from farm machinery. There is a partially amputated forearm with bright red blood spurting from the wound, and the abdomen is rigid and diffusely tender. The skin is pale, cool, and diaphoretic. Vital signs are BP 82/50, P 128, R 26. A bystander is holding a shirt loosely against the arm, and blood continues to spurt from beneath it. Which action should the AEMT take first?
Show the answer and rationale
Correct answer · Apply a tourniquet proximal to the wound to control the arterial bleeding
Uncontrolled, life-threatening external bleeding is addressed before any other assessment or treatment step. Because direct pressure from the bystander has not controlled the spurting arterial bleed, a tourniquet applied proximal to the wound is the correct first action, ahead of IV access, further exam, or splinting.
Why the others are wrong
Establish two large-bore intravenous lines and begin an isotonic bolus first: Fluid replacement does not stop ongoing arterial blood loss; starting IV lines before controlling the visible, uncontrolled bleeding lets the patient continue to lose blood faster than any bolus can replace it.
Perform a detailed abdominal exam to locate the internal bleeding source first: A detailed abdominal exam does not stop bleeding and delays a life-threatening intervention that is already identifiable and actionable at the extremity.
Splint the forearm in a position of function to help slow the blood loss: Splinting does not apply direct circumferential pressure to an arterial bleed; bystander direct pressure has already failed to control this spurting wound, so a tourniquet is required, not immobilization.
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