10 free AEMT practice questions: Burns, Musculoskeletal, and Special Trauma Populations
These are real questions from the same bank the app draws from. Each one is written to the NREMT AEMT content specifications and kept inside the AEMT scope of practice. Pick an answer and you get the full rationale, including why the other three options are wrong.
Work through all 10, then move on to the next topic. When you want the full picture, the free AEMT diagnostic covers every topic in one sitting. No account needed for any of it.
Question 1 of 10
A 61-year-old patient tending a burning brush pile has scattered patches of blistered skin across the chest and abdomen, none of them larger than a spread hand. Which method gives the AEMT the best estimate of the burned surface area?
Show the answer and rationale
Correct answer · Lay the patient's own palm and fingers over each patch and count one percent each
The deciding finding is that the burns are scattered patches on the chest and abdomen, none larger than a spread hand, not a single confluent burn over a whole body region. The rule of palm works because a patient's own palm plus fingers make up roughly one percent of that patient's own body surface area, a proportion that scales with the person it's measured on. Laying that hand over each patch and adding the patches together gives a total percentage the AEMT can trust for burn center notification and for planning fluid resuscitation, since total body surface area burned drives the fluid formula.
Why the others are wrong
Assign the whole anterior trunk as eighteen percent because the patches all sit on it: The patches sit on the anterior trunk, which the rule of nines assigns eighteen percent. The patches are scattered and small, not a confluent burn covering that whole region, so charging the full eighteen percent overestimates total body surface area and skews the fluid resuscitation plan.
Count the blisters and allow one percent of surface area for every ten of them: Counting blisters feels objective since blisters are countable, but blister count has no fixed relationship to surface area: one blister can cover a whole hand while ten fit on a thumb. This invents a formula standard burn assessment does not use.
Use the AEMT's own palm and fingers, which is the standard reference surface: Any adult palm approximates one percent of that same person's own surface area, so using your own hand looks like the rule of palm in action. The proportion only holds when the hand belongs to the body being measured: swap in the AEMT's hand and every patch skews by the size difference between provider and patient, throwing off fluid calculation.
Question 2 of 10
A 6-year-old patient was burned in a backyard campfire and has moist, blistered burns covering the entire head and face and the whole of one arm. What burned surface area should the AEMT report?
Show the answer and rationale
Correct answer · Twenty seven percent, using the pediatric head value of eighteen percent
A small child's head is proportionally larger than an adult's and the legs are proportionally smaller, so the chart shifts. On the pediatric rule of nines the head is eighteen percent and each leg is thirteen and a half, while the arms stay at nine. Eighteen for the head plus nine for the arm gives twenty seven. Reaching for the adult chart here would halve the head and hand the burn center a number that underestimates this child badly.
Why the others are wrong
Eighteen percent, using the adult head value of nine percent: The adult chart is the one most people have memorized, and nine percent for a head is the number that comes first. A child's head carries a much larger share of the surface area, and using nine here loses half of the burn.
Thirty six percent, counting the head and the arm as eighteen percent each: Doubling both regions looks like it respects the pediatric adjustment. Only the head and the legs shift in a child, since an arm is nine percent at every age.
Twenty two percent, averaging the adult and the pediatric head values: Splitting the difference between two charts feels safe when you are unsure which applies. The pediatric proportions are a fixed set of values rather than a range, and averaging produces a number that matches no patient.
Question 3 of 10
A 68-year-old patient has circumferential partial-thickness burns encircling both thighs after a motorcycle fuel fire, and both arms are completely unburned. Protocol calls for intravenous fluid during the forty minute transport. Where should the AEMT place the line?
Show the answer and rationale
Correct answer · In unburned skin on an upper extremity, away from the burned thighs
Two rules point the same direction here. Access goes through unburned skin whenever unburned skin is available, and it never goes distal to a circumferential burn. The swelling under an encircling burn squeezes everything passing through it, so a line started below one will infiltrate or stop running partway through the transport. Both arms were spared, which makes this an easy call rather than a compromise.
Why the others are wrong
In a vein of the lower leg, distal to the circumferential thigh burn: The lower leg is untouched by the fire, so it looks like clean unburned skin. Everything below an encircling thigh burn is downstream of tissue that is about to swell, and a line placed there is the one most likely to fail during transport.
Through the burned skin of the thigh, where the vein is largest and easiest: Burned skin can look deceptively easy to cannulate when the vein stands out beneath it. Going through burned tissue invites infection into an injury already at high risk for it, and the swelling underneath moves the vein away from the catheter.
In the external jugular vein, since both lower extremities are involved: Reaching past the arms feels resourceful when the legs are out of play. It is not needed when two entirely unburned arms are available, and a peripheral line in spared skin is both faster and lower risk.
Question 4 of 10
Lightning strikes a shelter on a golf course and three patients are down, with the next crew several minutes away. A 39-year-old patient is apneic and pulseless. The other two are dazed and confused but are breathing with strong radial pulses. Which patient should this crew treat first?
Show the answer and rationale
Correct answer · The apneic and pulseless patient, since lightning arrest is often reversible
Ordinary multiple-patient triage sends a pulseless patient to the lowest priority, because resources spent there are usually resources taken from someone salvageable. Lightning reverses that, and it is one of the few places in EMS where the rule flips outright. The arrest comes from a momentary electrical stun of the respiratory drive and the heart rather than from blood loss or destroyed tissue, so it responds to ventilation and resuscitation far better than an arrest from trauma does. The breathing patients have already survived the strike and can wait the few minutes it takes, which is exactly why you spend those minutes on the patient who cannot.
Why the others are wrong
The two breathing patients, since a pulseless patient is triaged expectant: This is correct triage at almost every other multiple-patient scene, which is precisely what makes it the trap. Lightning is the named exception, and applying the general rule here abandons the only patient whose outcome you can still change.
Whichever patient has the most visible burns, since those mark the strike: Visible burns look like a measure of how much energy a patient absorbed, so sorting by them feels objective. Lightning injuries are often superficial on the skin while the damage that kills is electrical and internal, so burn appearance is a poor guide to priority.
The apneic patient, once the two breathing patients are off the course: Clearing the walking patients first feels organized and gets bodies out of the weather. Minutes matter enormously in a reversible arrest and not at all to a patient with a strong radial pulse, so this ordering spends the wrong resource first.
Question 5 of 10
A 48-year-old patient was thrown from an all-terrain vehicle and has a deformed, shortened mid thigh. The ankle on that same leg is also obviously deformed and painful. A traction splint is on the ambulance. What should the AEMT do?
Show the answer and rationale
Correct answer · Splint the whole leg without traction, since the ankle injury rules it out
A traction splint earns its place on an isolated midshaft femur, where the pull counteracts the thigh muscle spasm that shortens the limb and drives bleeding. The word doing the work is isolated. This splint anchors at the ankle and pulls against it, so an injury to the lower leg or ankle on that side takes it off the table, along with a suspected pelvic fracture, a hip or knee injury, and a partial amputation. Immobilize the whole leg on a long board or with a vacuum splint instead, and keep reassessing circulation below both injuries.
Why the others are wrong
Apply the traction splint, since the femur is the greater threat to life: The femur genuinely is the more dangerous of the two injuries, and prioritizing it sounds like good triage. Traction here transmits the entire pull through a fractured ankle, so treating the bigger injury this way creates a second one.
Apply the traction splint with a gently reduced pull to protect the injured ankle: Dialing the force down feels like a reasonable compromise between two real concerns. A contraindication is not a dose question, and any traction at all still loads the injured ankle that the device anchors against.
Splint the ankle separately first, then apply the traction splint as usual: Sequencing the care looks methodical and splinting the ankle first sounds protective. Splinting does not remove the injury, and the traction splint still pulls against that ankle no matter what is wrapped around it.
Question 6 of 10
A 66-year-old patient fell down a flight of basement stairs and has a grossly angulated lower leg. The foot below the angulation is pale and cool, and no pulse can be found at the ankle or on the top of the foot. Transport time is thirty minutes. What should the AEMT do?
Show the answer and rationale
Correct answer · Make one gentle realignment attempt with steady axial traction, then splint
The decisive finding is the absent pulse at the ankle and on the dorsum of the foot, which is also pale and cool, distal to a grossly angulated lower leg. Physiologically, that angulation is kinking or compressing the popliteal and tibial vessels, and without correction the muscle and nerve tissue downstream goes ischemic. With a thirty-minute transport, waiting is not an option. The rule for a pulseless deformity is one gentle attempt at axial traction to bring the limb toward anatomic alignment, then splint regardless of whether the pulse returns, and document the attempt and the result.
Why the others are wrong
Splint the leg exactly as found, since repositioning can worsen the injury: Splinting exactly as found is the standard rule for an angulated fracture, because moving fragments increases bleeding and pain. That rule assumes a pulse is present. Here the foot is pale, cool, and pulseless at both the ankle and the dorsum, the exception that calls for one realignment attempt before splinting, so following the general rule here costs the limb its circulation.
Repeat realignment attempts until a pulse returns at the ankle or the foot: Repeated realignment sounds like persistence working in the patient's favor, since one attempt at restoring the pulse suggests more attempts might do it too. Each additional pass through the fracture site tears more soft tissue and vessel wall without reliably improving perfusion, so the protocol caps the maneuver at one gentle attempt, then splint and transport.
Apply a traction splint to restore length and straighten the foot that way: A traction splint is the right tool for a shortened, angulated femur shaft fracture, where steady traction restores length and stabilizes the limb. This injury sits below the knee, and the device anchors against the ankle and foot, the same segment that has already lost its pulse, making it contraindicated here.
Question 7 of 10
A 45-year-old patient has been pinned under an overturned tractor in a field for about five hours, with one leg and part of the pelvis compressed. The patient is alert and talking comfortably. Heavy rescue expects to lift the tractor in roughly ten minutes. What should the AEMT do during those ten minutes?
Show the answer and rationale
Correct answer · Start vascular access and run isotonic crystalloid before the lift happens
Five hours under a tractor is crush syndrome, and the commonly taught threshold is about four. Compressed muscle has been accumulating potassium, myoglobin, and acid in tissue whose circulation is cut off, and none of it can reach the heart while the weight is still there. The danger point is the moment the weight comes off, because restored circulation flushes that load into the central circulation all at once, which is why sudden arrest right after extrication is the classic presentation. Most trauma fluid is given with restraint, and this is one of the few places where it is given generously and early, commonly one to two liters in an adult started before the lift. A comfortable, talking patient is exactly the patient this is for, since the fluid is there to meet what is coming rather than to treat what you see.
Why the others are wrong
Hold the fluid until the limb is free so that none of the volume is wasted: Waiting until the injury is accessible fits the way most trauma care is sequenced, and nothing looks wrong with this patient yet. The whole point of the fluid is to be circulating before the load arrives, so giving it afterward misses the event it was meant to blunt.
Give fluid in small increments only if the blood pressure starts to drop: Titrating fluid to blood pressure is correct in most bleeding patients and sounds appropriately measured. In crush syndrome the pressure falls because of a potassium and acid surge rather than volume loss, and by then the arrhythmia is already in progress.
Concentrate on splinting the leg so it is ready the moment it comes free: Preparing for the extrication is genuinely useful work and splinting will be needed. Splinting changes nothing about the metabolic load that the lift will release, and it is the only one of these choices that leaves the patient without a line when the tractor comes up.
Question 8 of 10
A 9-year-old patient landed awkwardly dismounting a gymnastics beam and has point tenderness just above the ankle joint. The limb looks normal, with no deformity and very little swelling, and the patient can put a little weight on it. How should the AEMT treat this injury?
Show the answer and rationale
Correct answer · Splint it as a fracture, since a growth plate injury can look normal
Growth plates are cartilage, and they are the weakest part of a growing bone, so a force that would sprain an adult ankle fractures a child's growth plate instead. The fracture line runs through cartilage that does not show up the way a broken shaft does, which is why the limb can look entirely normal. Point tenderness near a joint in a child is treated as a fracture, full stop, and that means a splint, a circulation and sensation check on both sides of it, and a ride to the hospital. Missing one can disturb how that bone grows for years.
Why the others are wrong
Treat it as a sprain, since there is no deformity and little swelling: Absent deformity and minimal swelling is exactly how most sprains present, so the label fits the picture at first glance. Children sprain far less often than adults do, because the growth plate fails before the ligament does.
Have the patient walk on it to see whether the pain is mechanical: Weight bearing is a reasonable functional test in an adult ankle and it feels like useful information. Walking on a growth plate injury can displace it, and a child can often bear weight on a real fracture anyway.
Wrap it with an elastic bandage and let the family drive to the clinic: Compression and a clinic visit is a common and often adequate plan for a minor ankle injury. It leaves an unsplinted fracture being moved by whoever carries the child to the car, and it delays the imaging that decides the treatment.
Question 9 of 10
A 10-year-old patient fell about ten feet from a tree and has a deformed forearm and tenderness across the abdomen. The skin is pale and cool, capillary refill takes three seconds, and the vital signs are BP 96/70, P 148, R 28, and SpO₂ 98% on room air. How should the AEMT read this blood pressure?
Show the answer and rationale
Correct answer · As a compensating child whose pressure will fall late and then suddenly
Children compensate harder and longer than adults do, and then they decompensate abruptly. That means the blood pressure is nearly useless early, and everything else in this picture is already shouting. Pale, cool skin, a capillary refill of three seconds, a rate of 148, and a narrow pulse pressure are the findings that count, and they describe a child working hard to hold that number. Treat the shock you can see in the skin and the pulse, get the abdomen to a trauma center, and do not let a systolic of 96 slow anything down, because when it does fall it will fall fast.
Why the others are wrong
As reassurance that the blood loss so far has been fairly minor: A number inside the normal range is designed to be reassuring, and that is the whole trap. Pressure is the last thing a child gives up, so a normal reading tells you the compensation is still working rather than that the loss is small.
As a normal reading, since children run lower pressures than adults do: Children genuinely do run different vital sign ranges, which gives this a ring of truth. Calling this pressure normal skips over the skin, the refill time, and the rate, all of which say the child is paying dearly to keep it there.
As evidence that the fast rate comes from pain rather than from bleeding: Pain really does drive heart rate up and a deformed forearm certainly hurts. Pain does not make the skin pale and cool or stretch capillary refill to three seconds, and abdominal tenderness after a ten foot fall names a likelier source.
Question 10 of 10
A 77-year-old patient is found on a garage floor with a swollen, deformed wrist and no memory of getting there. The patient says the last clear memory is walking toward the car. What should the AEMT do alongside splinting the wrist?
Show the answer and rationale
Correct answer · Assess for a medical cause of the fall, such as syncope or low glucose
A geriatric fall is assessed as a possible medical event that caused a trauma rather than only as a trauma. Syncope, dysrhythmia, hypoglycemia, and stroke are all common causes of falls in this age group, and a patient who cannot account for the last moments before hitting the floor has handed you the clue. Check the blood glucose level, get an ECG, take a careful medication history, and ask about what was happening just before. Splint the wrist, certainly, and then go looking for the reason it broke.
Why the others are wrong
Record the mechanism as a simple trip and treat the injured wrist alone: Writing the obvious mechanism is fast and it matches what the scene looks like. A trip is something the patient usually remembers, and recording one that nobody witnessed closes the door on the question that actually matters.
Attribute the memory gap to age and concentrate fully on the injury: Some memory loss is genuinely common with age and families will often offer this explanation for you. A new gap covering exactly the moments around a fall is a finding rather than a baseline, and treating it as normal loses a syncopal episode.
Hold further assessment until the wrist is splinted, iced, and elevated: Finishing one task before starting the next feels organized and the wrist is the visible problem. The medical cause is the part of this call that can still kill the patient, and it does not wait for the splinting to be done.
Find out which AEMT topics are costing you points
Ten questions on one topic tell you about that topic. The free diagnostic covers every AEMT topic and breaks your results down by topic, so you know what to drill next. No card, no signup to try it.
Take the free AEMT diagnosticMore free AEMT practice questions by topic
Airway, Respiration & Ventilation
Cardiology & Resuscitation
Trauma
- Trauma Assessment and Fluid Resuscitation
- Advanced Trauma Interventions
- Bleeding Control and Hypovolemic Shock
- Head, Spinal, and Chest Trauma
- Burns, Musculoskeletal, and Special Trauma Populations
Medical/Obstetrics/Gynecology
- IV Therapy and Fluid Administration
- Medication Administration Routes
- Diabetic Emergencies and Glucometry
- Respiratory Emergencies and Nebulized Medications
- Obstetric and Gynecologic Emergencies
- Neurologic Emergencies: Stroke, Seizure, and Altered Mental Status
- Endocrine Emergencies Beyond Diabetes
- Gastrointestinal, Renal, and Genitourinary Emergencies
- Toxicology and Overdose Management
- Sepsis and Systemic Infection
- Allergic Reaction and Anaphylaxis
- Environmental Emergencies: Heat, Cold, and Submersion
EMS Operations
- AEMT Scope of Practice and Medical Direction
- Specialized Transport Considerations
- Scene Safety, Personal Protection, and Infection Control
- Multiple Casualty Incidents, Triage, and Incident Command
- Documentation, Communication, and Confidentiality
- Ambulance Operations and Equipment Readiness
- Responder Wellness and Resilience