10 free AEMT practice questions: Specialized Transport Considerations
These are real questions from the same bank the app draws from. Each one is written to the NREMT AEMT content specifications and kept inside the AEMT scope of practice. Pick an answer and you get the full rationale, including why the other three options are wrong.
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Question 1 of 10
A car has come to rest against a utility pole after a motor vehicle collision, and one patient is still seated inside. The utility company has confirmed that the pole and its wires are not energized, and there is no fire. What must be completed before the AEMT enters the vehicle?
Show the answer and rationale
Correct answer · Stabilizing the vehicle so it cannot move
Extrication runs in a fixed order, and stabilization sits ahead of gaining access for a reason. Until cribbing, step chocks, and wheel chocks hold the car so it cannot move in any direction, anyone who climbs in is working on an unsecured load, and a car resting against a pole can shift the moment you add weight to it. Stabilization is what makes the inside of the wreck a place you can work, so it comes before anyone enters rather than after. Once the vehicle is held, the crew moves on to gaining access and then to disentanglement.
Why the others are wrong
Removing a door to widen the opening: Gaining access is a real phase of extrication, and it is the phase students picture first because it is the visible part with tools and noise. Access comes after hazard control and stabilization, so widening the opening first only puts a crew member alongside a vehicle that can still move.
Disconnecting the positive battery cable first: Disconnecting the battery is a real step, and students who remember the step often reverse the order. The negative cable comes off first, not the positive one. Powering the vehicle down also follows stabilization rather than standing in for it.
Cutting the orange high-voltage cabling: Orange cabling on a hybrid marks high voltage, and students who know the color think cutting it is how the hazard gets removed. That cabling is never cut. Recognizing it and leaving it alone is the correct handling, and it is not a step that precedes entry.
Question 2 of 10
An AEMT is driving an ambulance with warning lights and siren and approaches an intersection where the traffic signal is red. Traffic is stopped in three lanes ahead, and the cross street is busy. What should the AEMT do at the intersection?
Show the answer and rationale
Correct answer · Stop completely and clear each lane separately
Intersections are where ambulances crash, which is why the rule is a complete stop at any red light or stop sign even with the warning devices running. Being stopped is not the point by itself; the point is what the stop buys you, which is time to clear each lane one at a time. Three stopped lanes hide three separate drivers who may or may not have seen the ambulance, and clearing them as a group is how a crew gets hit by the one in the far lane. Stop, clear lane one, then lane two, then lane three, then move.
Why the others are wrong
Slow to a roll and proceed once the siren is heard: The exemption for controlled intersections is real, and students read it as permission to roll through. The exemption is what makes crossing against the light lawful at all, while due regard governs how it is done. A complete stop followed by a lane-by-lane clearing is how the two fit together.
Hold the siren tone steady while crossing: A steady siren feels like the loudest and clearest signal, so students leave the tone alone. Drivers habituate to a continuous wail and stop registering it, which is why the tone is changed on approach. A yelp cuts through where a wail no longer does.
Pass the stopped traffic on the right shoulder: The shoulder looks like open road when three lanes are stopped, and students take it to keep moving. Passing on the right and using the shoulder are both practices to avoid, because a driver yielding correctly pulls to the right and ends up in that same space.
Question 3 of 10
A rural hospital asks an AEMT crew to transport a 58-year-old patient to a regional center. The sending nurse reports normal saline running through a forearm catheter, a cardiac monitor in place, and a low dose norepinephrine infusion started an hour ago. Which action should the crew take before accepting this transport?
Show the answer and rationale
Correct answer · Request a paramedic or nurse to ride along and manage the infusion
Break the patient into pieces and ask which pieces are yours. The saline is a non-medicated fluid, so maintaining it is an AEMT skill. The cardiac monitor is yours. The norepinephrine is a medicated infusion, and the National Scope Model puts maintenance of medicated fluids at the Paramedic level, which means the drip is not yours no matter how short the trip is. What you do with a piece you cannot manage is say so out loud to the sending facility and ask for a paramedic or a nurse to come along. That single move keeps the patient covered and keeps you inside your certification, which is what the National Registry is checking on every interfacility scenario.
Why the others are wrong
Accept the transport and titrate the norepinephrine to the ordered pressure: This is tempting because accepting a transfer feels like accepting the whole patient, and the sending physician has already written the order. Titrating a vasopressor is a Paramedic skill, and taking the assignment does not stretch your scope to cover it.
Accept the transport after the sending nurse stops the norepinephrine infusion: This is tempting because removing the problem does make the rest of the transport yours. Stopping a drip a physician started is a treatment decision that belongs to the sending facility, and the patient is on that medication because the blood pressure needs it during the ride.
Ask the sending nurse to write the infusion rate on the transfer paperwork: This is tempting because documentation genuinely matters on a transfer, and a written rate looks like authorization. A number on paper does not change who is legally allowed to manage the infusion once the doors close.
Question 4 of 10
An AEMT is asked to set up a landing zone for a light helicopter in an open field. Which dimensions should the crew mark off?
Show the answer and rationale
Correct answer · 100 feet by 100 feet on firm ground, with the corners marked by cones
A light helicopter needs a square 100 feet on a side, and the larger square of 120 by 120 is the preference when a bigger aircraft is coming. The ground has to be firm and close to level, within about 5 degrees of slope, and clear of wires and trees, which are the hazards that actually end flights. Mark the corners with weighted cones rather than flares, because rotor wash turns a flare into a fire and a loose cone into a projectile. Learn the number as a square rather than a radius, since that is how the perimeter gets marked and how the setback distances for bystanders and vehicles make sense.
Why the others are wrong
50 feet by 50 feet on firm ground, with the corners marked by cones: This is tempting because 50 feet is a real number in landing zone teaching and it sounds like a safe distance on an open field. That figure describes the distance from the center to the edge of a 100 foot square, not the size of the zone itself.
75 feet by 75 feet on firm ground, with the corners marked by cones: This is tempting because it sits between two numbers a student half remembers, and splitting the difference feels cautious. A zone this size leaves the rotor disc closer to the perimeter than the standard allows.
120 feet by 120 feet on firm ground, with the corners marked by cones: This is tempting because it is a real landing zone dimension and bigger sounds safer. The 120 foot square is the preference for larger aircraft, and the question names a light helicopter, which is the standard 100 foot square.
Question 5 of 10
An AEMT is managing a landing zone while a helicopter is inbound. Where should bystanders and parked vehicles be held?
Show the answer and rationale
Correct answer · Bystanders at least 200 feet back and vehicles at least 100 feet back
Hold bystanders at least 200 feet back and vehicles and non-essential personnel at least 100 feet back. The vehicle number is the one worth reasoning through rather than memorizing. A 100 foot square has its perimeter only 50 feet from the center, so anything parked at 50 feet is standing inside the landing area rather than clear of it. Holding vehicles at 100 feet puts them outside the zone with room to spare, and holding people at 200 feet accounts for the fact that a person can walk into the zone while a parked truck cannot. Rotor wash reaches farther than most crews expect, which is why loose objects get secured before the aircraft is anywhere close.
Why the others are wrong
Bystanders at least 100 feet back and vehicles at least 50 feet back: This is tempting because both figures are real landing zone numbers and the relationship between them looks right. The values are swapped low, and vehicles at 50 feet would be sitting inside the perimeter of a 100 foot square rather than outside it.
Bystanders at least 150 feet back and vehicles at least 150 feet back: This is tempting because a single generous distance for everyone is easier to enforce on a chaotic scene. The two groups carry different numbers on purpose, since people move and vehicles do not.
Bystanders and vehicles both at least 50 feet back from the center: This is tempting because 50 feet is the distance from the center of the zone to its edge, so it feels like a boundary. Standing at the edge of the landing area is standing in it, which is the exact error the 100 foot vehicle number exists to prevent.
Question 6 of 10
A 24-year-old patient has an isolated closed forearm fracture after a bicycle crash. The vital signs are BP 128/76, P 88, R 16, and SpO₂ 99% on room air. A community hospital is 8 minutes away and a trauma center is 35 minutes away. Which destination is appropriate?
Show the answer and rationale
Correct answer · The community hospital, because it can treat this injury and is closer
Destination selection runs on one phrase with two words in it, closest appropriate facility, and a wrong answer usually drops one of them. You bypass a closer hospital only when the patient needs a capability that hospital lacks. An isolated closed forearm fracture in a patient with normal vital signs needs splinting, imaging, and reduction, and a community hospital does all three. Driving 27 extra minutes buys the patient nothing and takes your unit out of service for the better part of an hour. The mirror image of this decision is the sprained ankle sent to a trauma center, which is the example the packaging lesson uses to show that a specialty center can be the wrong answer just as easily as a closer one.
Why the others are wrong
The trauma center, because a helicopter can shorten the transport time: This is tempting because air transport is genuinely faster over distance and the trauma center is far away. Speed is only worth buying when the destination is the right one, and a helicopter for a closed forearm fracture adds a landing zone and a transfer to a patient who needs neither.
The trauma center, because a fracture qualifies as a trauma activation: This is tempting because the word trauma appears in both the injury and the destination, which makes the pairing feel automatic. Trauma center criteria rest on physiology, anatomy, and mechanism, and an isolated closed forearm fracture with normal vital signs meets none of them.
The community hospital, but only if the patient asks to go there: This is tempting because a stable patient's preference does carry weight in destination selection, so waiting to be asked feels respectful. Preference decides between two appropriate hospitals, and it is not what makes the community hospital correct here, since this injury needs nothing the trauma center alone can provide.
Question 7 of 10
A 39-year-old patient has deep burns across the chest and both arms after a flash fire. A community hospital is 10 minutes away and a burn center is 40 minutes away. Which destination should the AEMT crew choose?
Show the answer and rationale
Correct answer · The burn center, because it holds a capability the closer hospital lacks
A burn center is one of the named specialty destinations that justify driving past a closer hospital, alongside trauma, percutaneous coronary intervention, stroke, pediatric, and hyperbaric centers. Deep burns across the chest and both arms need wound management, fluid resuscitation, and eventually grafting that a general emergency department cannot provide, so the closer hospital would stabilize and then transfer. That transfer costs the patient far more time than the 30 extra minutes you would spend driving there directly. The regional plan and medical direction set these rules, which is why the decision is the same regardless of who is working that day.
Why the others are wrong
The community hospital, because it is the closest appropriate facility: This is tempting because it uses the correct phrase, and a hospital that can start care does look appropriate. Appropriate means capable of treating the problem through, and a general emergency department stabilizes a burn of this size and then sends it on.
The community hospital, because burn care can be started at any hospital: This is tempting because initial burn care genuinely does begin anywhere, including in your ambulance. Starting care is not the same as providing it, and the destination decision is about where the patient's definitive treatment happens.
Whichever hospital the patient's family names on the way out of the scene: This is tempting because family preference does matter and honoring it feels respectful. Preference is honored for a stable patient when the chosen hospital can treat the condition, and deep burns over the chest and both arms need a capability the family cannot supply by naming a building.
Question 8 of 10
Law enforcement has secured a combative 28-year-old patient and an AEMT crew is applying soft restraints for transport. How should the patient be positioned and monitored?
Show the answer and rationale
Correct answer · Supine with the airway accessible, checking distal circulation on a schedule
Two rules govern every restraint you will ever apply. The patient goes supine or lateral with the airway accessible, and you monitor on a schedule from that point on. Face down positions and any arrangement that draws the wrists and ankles together cause positional asphyxia, which kills quietly and is the reason those positions are ruled out completely rather than allowed with precautions. Once the restraints are on, you reassess and document circulation, sensation, and movement distal to each one, and you watch mental status continuously, because a patient who appears to settle down may be deteriorating rather than calming. Restraint is a last resort used to prevent harm, so the scene gets secured by law enforcement first and your own safety comes before the application.
Why the others are wrong
Prone with the wrists secured behind the back and the head turned to one side: This is tempting because turning the head looks like it solves the airway problem that prone positioning creates. Prone restraint compresses the chest against the surface regardless of head position, and that is the mechanism of positional asphyxia.
Prone with the ankles and wrists drawn together and padding under the chest: This is tempting because padding under the chest sounds like it protects breathing, and drawing the limbs together looks secure. Drawing the wrists and ankles together is the hobble position, which is ruled out for the same asphyxia risk that rules out prone.
Seated upright on the bench seat with the wrists secured to the cot frame: This is tempting because upright seating keeps the airway open and looks comfortable. A seated patient restrained to a frame is not secured for a crash, and the bench seat gives a combative patient leverage that a cot does not.
Question 9 of 10
An AEMT crew arrives for a patient who weighs about 400 pounds and is seated in a second floor bedroom. Which action should the crew take before lifting?
Show the answer and rationale
Correct answer · Plan the route, call for more hands, and use a rated lifting device
Three moves come before the lift for a large patient. Plan the extraction route while you can still change it, add personnel, and use a device rated for the weight you are actually moving. Calling the fire department for a lift assist is routine rather than an admission of failure, and the request costs a few minutes against a back injury that costs a career. Patient handling is one of the three sources of most EMS injuries, alongside roadway operations and violence, which is why the technique is spelled out as carefully as it is. Preserve dignity while you work: drape the patient, minimize exposure, and keep your tone professional, because a patient who has heard crews complain before will be listening for it.
Why the others are wrong
Lift with the two crew members present and move slowly down the stairs: This is tempting because two providers can physically move a great deal and calling for help feels like an admission. Weight that exceeds what two people can control on a stairwell is where crews and patients get hurt, and moving slowly does not reduce the load on your back.
Move the patient to the floor and drag the patient out on a blanket: This is tempting because a blanket drag is a legitimate emergency move and it avoids a lift entirely. Emergency moves are for scene danger, and dragging a patient down a flight of stairs on a blanket trades a lifting injury for a fall.
Call for a lift assist only if the first attempt at the stairs fails: This is tempting because trying first and escalating later sounds efficient, and sometimes the first attempt works. A failed attempt happens with the patient already off the surface and the crew already loaded, which is the worst moment to discover you need more hands.
Question 10 of 10
An AEMT gives a radio report to the receiving hospital for a patient who received an antiemetic by the intravenous route 6 minutes earlier, with improvement in the nausea. The transport time remaining is 8 minutes. What should the report include about that medication?
Show the answer and rationale
Correct answer · The name, dose, route, time, and the patient's response
The radio report exists for one reason: it buys the receiving team time to prepare before the patient arrives. That single purpose sorts everything. Anything that changes what they prepare belongs in it, and anything that does not can wait for the written report. A medication the AEMT already gave changes their preparation in two directions at once. It tells them what has been tried, so they do not repeat it into a duplicate dose, and it starts the clock they will use to decide whether a repeat is actually due. That is why the time is not an optional detail: a dose given 6 minutes ago and the same dose given 60 minutes ago lead to completely different next steps for the same drug. The piece candidates drop most often is the response. A medication that worked and a medication that did nothing are two different pieces of clinical information, and the crew that was in the back is the only party who can supply it. Anything an AEMT administers gets reported as name, dose, route, time, and what happened afterward.
Why the others are wrong
The name and dose, since the written report carries the rest: Name and dose without route and time leaves the receiving team unable to judge when a repeat is due or how the drug was delivered. The written report arrives with the patient, not ahead of them, so it cannot fill the preparation window.
The name only, with the details given at the bedside: Bedside detail arrives after the preparation window has already closed, which is the exact window the radio report exists to fill. By then the team has already decided what to have ready.
Nothing, since the written report will list the medication: Omitting the medication entirely risks a duplicate dose from a team that does not know one was given, and it withholds the only information about the patient's response to treatment that anyone has.
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