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10 free AEMT practice questions: Shock Recognition and Fluid Resuscitation

These are real questions from the same bank the app draws from. Each one is written to the NREMT AEMT content specifications and kept inside the AEMT scope of practice. Pick an answer and you get the full rationale, including why the other three options are wrong.

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Question 1 of 10

A 21-year-old college student has had three days of vomiting and diarrhea during a dormitory outbreak and is now too weak to stand. The neck veins are flat, the lung sounds are clear, and the skin is cool, pale, and moist. The vital signs are BP 98/76, P 122, R 22, and SpO₂ 97% on room air. Which shock category do these findings identify?

Show the answer and rationale

Correct answer · Hypovolemic shock, from the volume lost through vomiting and diarrhea

Start at the neck. Flat veins mean the system is underfilled, which leaves hypovolemic and distributive on the table and takes the other two off it. Then look at the skin. Cool, pale, and moist means the vessels clamped down to protect what fluid is left, which is the volume category. Warm, red, and dry would have sent you to distributive instead. Three days of vomiting and diarrhea is fluid leaving the body, and that 98 over 76 is worth a second look on its own, because the systolic is drifting down while the diastolic climbs on clamped vessels.

Why the others are wrong

Obstructive shock, from a blockage sitting outside the heart itself: A blockage outside the heart backs blood up and distends the neck veins. Flat veins rule that pattern out before you even get to the lungs.

Distributive shock, from the vasodilation that follows a viral illness: Distributive shock opens the container and warms the skin. Cool, pale, clamped skin is the opposite finding, and a gut illness empties the tank rather than widening the vessels.

Cardiogenic shock, from a pump too weak to move the volume it holds: A failing pump also distends the neck veins and usually adds crackles. Flat veins with clear lungs say the tank is low, not that the pump quit.

Question 2 of 10

A 10-year-old with three days of high fever and a severe pneumonia had a heart rate of 168 on arrival. Over the next ten minutes that rate drifts down to 52 while the child becomes harder to rouse. The vital signs are now BP 72/40, R 36, and SpO₂ 88% on a non-rebreather mask. How should the falling heart rate be interpreted?

Show the answer and rationale

Correct answer · As a pre-arrest finding that calls for immediate oxygenation and ventilation

A heart rate that falls in a sick child is one of the few findings that should make your stomach drop. Children hold cardiac output up almost entirely by heart rate, so a rate coming down in a child who is getting harder to wake is not the fever breaking and it is not recovery. It means the compensation has run out and arrest is close. What this child needs immediately is oxygenation and ventilation, because hypoxia is the most common road into pediatric arrest. Falling responsiveness, a systolic of 72, and a saturation of 88 percent on high flow oxygen are all pointing the same direction.

Why the others are wrong

As an expected rebound once fever driven tachycardia has run its course: Fever does raise heart rate, and a rate of 52 in a ten year old is far below normal for the age rather than a return to any baseline.

As a normal response to the high oxygen concentration now being delivered: Oxygen does not slow a shocked child's heart into the fifties. Reading this rate as a treatment effect costs the minutes this patient does not have.

As evidence the compensation worked and the child is beginning to recover: Recovery in a child shows up as better mental status, warmer skin, and a shorter capillary refill. This child is going the other way while the rate falls.

Question 3 of 10

A 65-year-old patient with severe upper abdominal pain and repeated vomiting has been diagnosed with acute pancreatitis and is being transported from a clinic for admission. The skin is cool and the patient is restless. The vital signs are BP 104/82, P 116, R 22, and SpO₂ 95% on room air. Which reading of these numbers best describes the perfusion status?

Show the answer and rationale

Correct answer · Perfusion is failing, because the heart rate has climbed past the systolic

Two early markers are doing the same job here, and blood pressure is not one of them. Pulse pressure is systolic minus diastolic, normally around 30 to 40 in an adult. This patient is at 22, and the reason is that the systolic drifted down as stroke volume fell while the diastolic climbed on clamped vessels. Shock index is the second marker. Divide the heart rate by the systolic, and anything above roughly 0.9 to 1.0 says significant hypoperfusion. The quick mental version is that a heart rate above the systolic number is a problem, and 116 against 104 crosses that line. Pancreatitis pulls a large volume of fluid into inflamed tissue where the circulation cannot reach it, so the tank empties without anything being spilled.

Why the others are wrong

Perfusion is adequate, because the diastolic of 82 shows relaxed vessels: A diastolic of 82 under a systolic of 104 means the vessels are clamped, not relaxed. That narrowing is a warning rather than something reassuring.

Perfusion is failing, because the pulse pressure has widened beyond 40 mmHg: The pulse pressure here is 22, which is narrow rather than wide. Watching for it to widen would be looking in the wrong direction in early shock.

Perfusion is adequate, because the systolic of 104 sits above the threshold: A systolic above 90 only tells you the pressure has not failed yet. Compensated shock holds a normal pressure by definition, which is what makes the stage easy to walk past.

Question 4 of 10

An 87-year-old patient with a kidney infection is hypotensive and poorly perfused, and a student on the crew reaches for a bag of dextrose 5 percent in water to run the fluid bolus. Why is that fluid a poor choice for restoring circulating volume?

Show the answer and rationale

Correct answer · The dextrose is metabolized and the free water left behind spreads body wide

Dextrose 5 percent in water is isotonic while it sits in the bag, which is why it looks like a resuscitation fluid on a shelf. Once it is inside the patient the dextrose is metabolized and what remains is free water, and free water distributes across total body water instead of staying in the vessels. That gives you almost no intravascular expansion while diluting the electrolytes the patient still has. Its real jobs are as a carrier fluid or a keep vein open line. When you need volume you want an isotonic crystalloid that stays in the extracellular space, which at this level means normal saline or Lactated Ringer's.

Why the others are wrong

It is hypertonic, so it pulls water out of the cells and into the vessels: Pulling water out of cells is what a hypertonic fluid does, and this one is not hypertonic. The problem runs the other way, since what remains after metabolism spreads everywhere.

It carries no sodium, so the kidneys clear it before it reaches the vessels: Clearance by the kidneys is not the mechanism. The fluid leaves the vessels by distributing across total body water long before the kidneys become the issue.

It is hypotonic in the bag, so it drops the sodium before it expands volume: The bag itself is isotonic rather than hypotonic. The tonicity changes inside the patient once the sugar is used up, and that is where the volume gets lost.

Question 5 of 10

An 8-year-old with severe dehydration from two days of vomiting is in compensated shock. No caregiver weight is available and the crew has no length based tape. Using the common field formula for this age range, what volume should the AEMT prepare for a 20 mL per kilogram bolus?

Show the answer and rationale

Correct answer · About 480 mL, from an estimated weight of 24 kilograms

With no tape and no caregiver number, the common convention for children one to ten years old estimates weight in kilograms as twice the age in years plus eight. Twice eight is sixteen, plus eight is twenty four kilograms, and twenty milliliters per kilogram of that is 480 mL. Two things are worth carrying along with the formula. It runs low toward the top of its range, which is why a length based tape or a recent weight from a caregiver beats it whenever either exists. The number you calculate is also a starting bolus rather than a total, so you reassess heart rate, capillary refill, mental status, skin signs, and lung sounds afterward before deciding whether a second one follows.

Why the others are wrong

About 320 mL, from an estimated weight of 16 kilograms: Sixteen kilograms is what the formula gives for a four year old. Running it for an eight year old gives a heavier child and a larger bolus.

About 560 mL, from an estimated weight of 28 kilograms: Twenty eight kilograms comes from adding twelve rather than eight. The convention adds a flat eight kilograms to twice the age in years.

About 360 mL, from an estimated weight of 18 kilograms: Eighteen kilograms is neither the formula's answer nor a tape reading for this age. Twice eight is sixteen, and adding eight gives twenty four.

Question 6 of 10

A 43-year-old patient in decompensated shock from three days of vomiting is receiving a bolus of isotonic crystalloid during a long transport on a cold night. Why does the AEMT warm the fluid before it runs?

Show the answer and rationale

Correct answer · Room temperature fluid is well below body temperature and cools the patient

Room temperature fluid feels warm in your hand and is still well below body temperature, and a liter or two of it will cool a patient who is already struggling to hold heat. That matters because hypothermia, acidosis, and coagulopathy reinforce one another, each one making the other two worse. Keeping a shock patient warm is genuine treatment rather than comfort care, since hypothermia impairs clotting and worsens acidosis. Warming the fluid, warming the compartment, and covering the patient are all the same intervention.

Why the others are wrong

Warm fluid absorbs into the vessels faster than room temperature fluid does: Temperature does not change how quickly crystalloid crosses into the vessels. The reason to warm it is what cold fluid does to the patient's own temperature.

Warm fluid raises the tonicity of the bag so it holds volume in the vessels: Warming a bag does not change its tonicity. An isotonic fluid is isotonic hot or cold, and the volume it holds in the vessels is unchanged either way.

Warm fluid reduces the pain of the infusion, which lowers the heart rate: Comfort is a real benefit and it is not the reason. Cold fluid drives a patient toward the hypothermia, acidosis, and coagulopathy combination that worsens outcomes.

Question 7 of 10

A 50-year-old patient in decompensated shock is being ventilated with a BVM through a supraglottic airway. The EtCO₂ was 31 mmHg and now reads 17 mmHg. The AEMT notices the partner is delivering about 30 ventilations per minute. The blood pressure and heart rate are unchanged. What should the AEMT do first?

Show the answer and rationale

Correct answer · Slow the ventilation rate back to the correct number and recheck the value

A falling end tidal value usually means falling perfusion, and that is the rule this scenario is built to collide with. Ventilating too fast blows off carbon dioxide and drops the value for reasons that have nothing to do with blood flow, so a hyperventilated patient looks exactly like a deteriorating one on the monitor. Thirty ventilations a minute in an adult is the contaminated variable, and until it is fixed the number cannot be interpreted at all. There is a second reason to fix it that has nothing to do with the reading. Fast, forceful positive pressure ventilation raises the pressure inside the chest, cuts the blood returning to the heart, and genuinely lowers cardiac output in a patient who is already dry. The reading is both falsely low and truly low at once, and slowing down treats both.

Why the others are wrong

Give another fluid increment, since the falling value shows lost perfusion: Fluid may well still be needed, and giving it now means acting on a number you cannot yet trust. Control the ventilation variable first so the next value means something.

Remove the supraglottic airway, since the falling value suggests displacement: Nothing here suggests the airway moved. A device problem changes the waveform and the chest rise rather than tracking a partner's ventilation rate.

Increase the ventilation rate further to clear the carbon dioxide building up: Going faster deepens both problems at once. It drives the value lower still and squeezes venous return further in a patient who cannot spare it.

Question 8 of 10

An 85-year-old is found confused in a top floor apartment on the third day of a heat wave, after eating and drinking very little for three days. The skin is cool and mottled and the radial pulse is weak. The vital signs are BP 78/50, P 122, R 24, and SpO₂ 94% on room air. Two peripheral attempts spanning about ninety seconds have failed on collapsed veins. What is the appropriate next step for access?

Show the answer and rationale

Correct answer · Place an intraosseous line, since the decision rule for this patient is met

The decision rule is two failed peripheral attempts or ninety seconds of trying, whichever comes first, in a patient sick enough that access cannot wait. This patient meets both halves of it. Confusion, mottled skin, a weak radial pulse, and a systolic of 78 are decompensated shock, and collapsed veins are precisely the situation the intraosseous route exists for. The marrow cavity is a venous plexus that does not collapse and drains into the central circulation, so anything you would give intravenously goes by this route at the same dose, isotonic crystalloid included. Plan for the practical side too. The line will not run by gravity, so you need a pressure bag or syringe pushes, and it gets flushed with 5 to 10 mL in an adult before anything moves.

Why the others are wrong

Keep attempting peripheral access, since intraosseous access is a last resort: Intraosseous access is not a last resort held until the patient is nearly dead. It exists for the patient who needs access now, and the rule here has already been met.

Transport without access and let the hospital establish a line on arrival: A patient in decompensated shock needs volume during the transport rather than after it. Arriving without access throws away the time the fluid was meant to buy.

Attempt an external jugular line, the only remaining option at this level: An external jugular attempt is another peripheral stick in a patient whose veins have already collapsed, and it delays the route designed for this exact situation.

Question 9 of 10

A 23-year-old patient in compensated shock from two days of vomiting is being loaded for transport. A first responder asks whether the stretcher should be tilted head down and the patient's legs raised to move blood back toward the core. How should this patient be positioned?

Show the answer and rationale

Correct answer · Supine and kept warm, since routine head down positioning is not recommended

Routine head down positioning and passive leg raising are no longer recommended as shock treatment. The shock patient without a contraindication goes supine, and the exception is the patient in cardiogenic shock or pulmonary edema who cannot tolerate lying flat, who gets positioned upright or semi upright so breathing stays possible. What does belong on the list alongside position is warmth. Keeping the patient warm is genuine treatment rather than comfort care, because hypothermia impairs clotting and worsens acidosis. A blanket and a warm compartment do more for this patient than a tilted stretcher ever will.

Why the others are wrong

Head down at about thirty degrees, which returns blood from the legs to the core: The head down tilt is the position that came off the list. It does not improve outcomes and it makes breathing harder for a patient who needs it easy.

Legs raised without a head down tilt, which is the current recommended version: Passive leg raising came off the list at the same time as the head down tilt, so keeping half of the old maneuver does not make it current.

Seated fully upright, which improves breathing and does not affect perfusion: Sitting upright is reserved for the cardiogenic or pulmonary edema patient who cannot tolerate lying flat, which does not describe a patient dry from vomiting.

Question 10 of 10

A 20-year-old patient took a first dose of a new antibiotic twenty minutes ago and has hives, swelling of the lips, and wheezing. The AEMT gave intramuscular epinephrine and is managing the airway with oxygen, and the wheezing has eased considerably. The vital signs are now BP 84/48, P 128, R 24, and SpO₂ 95% on oxygen. What treats the remaining problem?

Show the answer and rationale

Correct answer · Isotonic crystalloid, since the vessels are dilated and leaking their volume

Anaphylaxis is the fastest version of distributive shock. Histamine dilates the vessels and makes them leaky within minutes, so the fluid is still in the body and simply no longer inside the container. Intramuscular epinephrine reverses the dilation directly and it has clearly done its job on the airway here. What is left is a container still too large for the volume inside it, and the AEMT tool for that is isotonic crystalloid. An AEMT whose anaphylaxis patient remains hypotensive after the intramuscular dose and airway management treats the remaining problem with fluid, not with an epinephrine push into the vein.

Why the others are wrong

An intravenous epinephrine push, which works faster than the muscular route: Pushing epinephrine into a vein is a Paramedic level intervention and it is not the AEMT answer to hypotension that persists after the muscular dose.

Continue monitoring alone, since epinephrine lifts the pressure as it works: Epinephrine does raise the pressure, and it is why the wheezing eased. It cannot refill a vascular space that is leaking, and waiting on a systolic of 84 while it tries is not a plan.

A second intramuscular epinephrine dose given immediately in the other thigh: Epinephrine does repeat every 5 to 15 minutes when symptoms persist, so a second dose is not off the table for this patient. It is not what treats the problem that is left. Once the airway has responded and the pressure is still down after the intramuscular dose, the next AEMT step is the isotonic bolus.

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