10 free AEMT practice questions: Neurologic Emergencies: Stroke, Seizure, and Altered Mental Status
These are real questions from the same bank the app draws from. Each one is written to the NREMT AEMT content specifications and kept inside the AEMT scope of practice. Pick an answer and you get the full rationale, including why the other three options are wrong.
Work through all 10, then move on to the next topic. When you want the full picture, the free AEMT diagnostic covers every topic in one sitting. No account needed for any of it.
Question 1 of 10
A 73-year-old patient has sudden left arm weakness and facial droop. Breathing is unlabored at 16 per minute and the SpO₂ reads 97% on room air. What is the correct oxygen decision?
Show the answer and rationale
Correct answer · Give no supplemental oxygen and monitor the reading
The deciding number here is the SpO₂ of 97% on room air, with an unlabored rate of 16. Hemoglobin is already carrying nearly all the oxygen it can bind, so adding oxygen doesn't change oxygen delivery to tissue and can drive up oxidative stress in ischemic brain tissue through hyperoxia-induced vasoconstriction. The correct move is to leave the patient on room air, keep the pulse oximeter running, and add oxygen only if the saturation falls below 94%, not to treat a stroke diagnosis with oxygen by default.
Why the others are wrong
Apply an NRB at 15 liters per minute: An NRB at 15 liters is for a patient who is hypoxic or in obvious respiratory distress, not this one, whose SpO₂ sits at 97% with an unlabored rate of 16, so there's no deficit to correct.
Apply a nasal cannula at 4 liters per minute: A nasal cannula at 4 liters seems reasonable for a stroke patient sitting in the low 90s, borderline hypoxic. This patient's SpO₂ reads 97% on room air with an unlabored rate of 16, so no oxygen deficit exists. Stroke protocols call for supplemental oxygen only once saturation drops below 94%, so this treats the diagnosis, not the number.
Begin assisted ventilation with a BVM: A BVM is for inadequate breathing, too slow, shallow, or apneic; this patient is breathing unlabored at 16 with a 97% saturation, already adequate, so there's nothing to assist.
Question 2 of 10
A 4-year-old patient has been actively seizing for 8 minutes with no break in the movement. Which term describes this presentation?
Show the answer and rationale
Correct answer · Status epilepticus
Status epilepticus is defined by eight minutes of continuous seizure activity with no break in the movement, past the five-minute mark that separates a self-limiting seizure from this diagnosis. At the physiologic level, cortical neurons keep firing in a sustained, synchronized discharge that fails to terminate on its own, burning through cerebral glucose and oxygen and raising the risk of permanent neuronal injury the longer it runs. Naming it this way changes your priority: this patient needs a benzodiazepine on your protocol now and an ALS intercept or immediate transport, because this seizure will not stop without intervention.
Why the others are wrong
A simple febrile seizure: the brief, self-limiting, generalized seizure you see in a feverish child, usually stopping well under five minutes on its own. Eight continuous minutes with no break blows past that definition regardless of whether fever is present.
A postictal state: The postictal state is the depressed, confused recovery period that follows once the seizure activity has stopped, with the patient still but not responsive. This child is still actively seizing at the eight-minute mark, so there is no postictal phase to describe yet.
A focal seizure: involves abnormal firing limited to one region of the cortex, often producing movement in a single limb or side while the patient stays aware. Nothing here narrows the activity to one body part, and the eight-minute duration is what defines this presentation, not seizure location.
Question 3 of 10
A 34-year-old patient has been seizing continuously for 11 minutes. The airway is being managed with positioning and suction, and the blood glucose reads 96. The emergency department is 7 minutes away. A paramedic unit can meet the ambulance in 14 minutes. Which action is correct?
Show the answer and rationale
Correct answer · Continue supportive care and transport to the emergency department
The deciding finding is the clock: this patient has been seizing for 11 minutes, meeting the definition of status epilepticus, with a normal glucose of 96 ruling out hypoglycemia as the cause. Continuous seizure activity drives ongoing cerebral hypoxia and metabolic acidosis, so the priority is getting a benzodiazepine into this patient as fast as possible. The emergency department is 7 minutes away; the paramedic intercept is 14. Since you carry no seizure-stopping drug yourself, the faster route to someone who does is the ED, not a rendezvous that takes twice as long.
Why the others are wrong
Stage on scene and wait for the paramedic unit to arrive: Staging on scene appeals when ALS truly is closer than the hospital and can shorten time to definitive treatment. Here the paramedic unit is 14 minutes out, twice the 7-minute run to the ED, so waiting only lets the seizure continue longer for no benefit.
Request an order from medical direction to give a sedative: A benzodiazepine is exactly what this seizure needs, and that instinct is correct, but diazepam, midazolam, and lorazepam sit outside the national AEMT formulary, so no order from medical direction can grant a drug that scope of practice does not include.
Meet the paramedic unit and transfer care at that point: Meeting the paramedic unit only helps when the intercept beats the hospital's arrival time. At 14 minutes out, the rendezvous takes twice as long as the 7-minute transport to the ED, so it answers a slower version of the same question transport already solves.
Question 4 of 10
A 6-year-old patient is having a generalized seizure on a tile floor with furniture nearby. Which action best describes appropriate care during the active seizure?
Show the answer and rationale
Correct answer · Move objects away and pad the area around the head
The detail that decides this is the tile floor with furniture nearby, an environment full of hard edges the seizure itself can drive the patient into. Generalized tonic-clonic contractions are involuntary and forceful enough to slam a limb or the skull against whatever is closest, and that impact is the actual injury risk, not the seizure activity itself. Your job during the active phase is to clear those objects, get padding under the head, and time the event while it runs its course untouched.
Why the others are wrong
Hold the arms and legs still to prevent injury: Holding the limbs still comes from the same worry about injury, but the contractions in a generalized seizure generate more force than a joint or long bone can safely resist. Restraining a seizing 6-year-old risks fracturing a bone or tearing muscle instead of preventing that injury, and it does nothing to shorten the seizure.
Place a bite block between the teeth to protect the tongue: A bite block comes from the old myth that a seizing patient can swallow the tongue; that cannot happen. The masseter muscles clamp down hard enough during the seizure to crack teeth on the block or push it into the airway.
Lift the patient onto the cot and secure the straps: Lifting the patient onto the cot is correct once the convulsions stop, not while this patient is still actively seizing on the tile floor. Moving a seizing body adds injury risk and accomplishes nothing until the seizure has ended.
Question 5 of 10
A 29-year-old patient who is 34 weeks pregnant has a generalized seizure with no seizure history. The vital signs after the seizure are BP 178/112, P 102, R 18, and SpO₂ 96% on room air. Which combination of actions is most appropriate?
Show the answer and rationale
Correct answer · Left lateral positioning, a quiet cabin, and rapid obstetric transport
The deciding finding is the blood pressure of 178/112 in a 34-week pregnant patient who just seized with no prior seizure history: that combination is eclampsia until an obstetric team proves otherwise. Left lateral positioning shifts the gravid uterus off the inferior vena cava, restoring venous return and placental perfusion, and a quiet, low-stimulation cabin lowers the risk of triggering another seizure. Because the only definitive treatment is magnesium sulfate and delivery at a facility with obstetrics, the transport decision is rapid transport with early notification, not routine handling.
Why the others are wrong
Supine positioning, oxygen by NRB, and routine transport: Supine positioning and oxygen fit a routine post-ictal patient with no pregnancy concern, but at 34 weeks the vena cava is compressed by the uterus when flat on the back, and this patient's BP of 178/112 makes routine transport the wrong urgency call.
Seated positioning, a fluid bolus, and transport to the nearest clinic: A fluid bolus and seated positioning belong to a hypotensive or shock patient, but this patient is hypertensive at 178/112, sitting upright does nothing to relieve uterine compression of the vena cava, and a clinic cannot deliver magnesium sulfate or manage delivery.
Left lateral positioning, bright lighting, and a repeat blood pressure: Left lateral positioning is the correct piece here, which is what makes this the closest option, but bright lighting increases the sensory stimulation that can provoke another seizure, and rechecking a blood pressure does not substitute for initiating rapid obstetric transport on a patient who already meets eclampsia criteria.
Question 6 of 10
A 52-year-old patient collapsed without warning while jogging and woke up on the sidewalk within seconds. There is no chest pain now and the neurologic exam is normal. Which action best fits this history?
Show the answer and rationale
Correct answer · Acquire a 12-lead ECG and transport on the cardiac monitor
The decisive finding is exertional syncope with no prodrome, collapse mid-run followed by rapid, spontaneous return to normal mentation. Physiologically, syncope that strikes during exertion points to a transient drop in cardiac output from a structural lesion or a dysrhythmia, not a vagally mediated drop in venous return. A normal exam afterward reflects that the rhythm or obstruction has already resolved, not that the risk has passed. That mandates a 12-lead ECG and continuous cardiac monitoring through transport, since the same arrhythmia can recur and kill on the next beat.
Why the others are wrong
Release the patient to a family member after a normal exam: A normal neurologic exam and a calm patient look like grounds to release, and that logic holds for a simple faint that's fully resolved. It fails here because the collapse happened during exertion, the pattern for cardiac syncope, where a normal exam only means the rhythm corrected itself, not that it's safe to send this patient home.
Give a fluid bolus and recheck a standing blood pressure: Standing blood pressures and a fluid bolus fit orthostatic hypotension or dehydration, conditions that cause lightheadedness on standing after prolonged upright rest. This patient collapsed mid-jog with no positional trigger, so nothing points to volume depletion, and orthostatic testing answers a question this history never asked.
Treat the event as vasovagal and transport without a monitor: This looks like a classic vasovagal faint: quick return to baseline and a normal exam. Vasovagal syncope needs a prodrome, lightheadedness, nausea, dimming vision, and it happens while upright and still. Collapsing without warning mid-jog is the one detail that pattern can't explain, so calling it vasovagal and skipping the monitor misses the cardiac cause.
Question 7 of 10
Two adults in a home with a running generator report headache, nausea, and confusion. Both have a SpO₂ of 98% on room air. How should the oxygen saturation readings be interpreted?
Show the answer and rationale
Correct answer · They may be falsely high and do not exclude poisoning
The generator running in the home is the finding that decides this: carbon monoxide displaces oxygen from hemoglobin, but a standard two-wavelength pulse oximeter cannot distinguish oxyhemoglobin from carboxyhemoglobin, so it counts the CO-bound hemoglobin as saturated and reports a falsely reassuring number. Headache, nausea, and confusion in two people from the same enclosed space with a combustion source running is the pattern that should drive suspicion of carbon monoxide poisoning regardless of the SpO₂. Get both patients into fresh air, apply high-concentration oxygen, and transport for CO-oximetry and further evaluation.
Why the others are wrong
They confirm adequate oxygen delivery to the tissues: A normal SpO₂ reading is the number every option here has to explain, and taken alone it looks reassuring, but that is exactly backward: the device is counting the molecule blocking oxygen delivery as though it were oxygen, so 98% here confirms nothing about tissue oxygenation.
They are inaccurate because both patients are confused: Pulse oximeters can misread from poor perfusion, motion, or nail polish, but altered mental status itself does not distort the probe. The inaccuracy here comes from what carbon monoxide does to hemoglobin, not from the patients being confused.
They indicate the symptoms come from a shared illness: Two people sick together does raise infectious or environmental illness as a thought, but the running generator points specifically to carbon monoxide exposure, a sharper and more urgent explanation than a generic shared illness.
Question 8 of 10
An 82-year-old patient has become progressively more confused over the past four days with reduced appetite and no focal weakness. The vital signs are BP 106/64, P 108, R 22, and T 100.8 degrees Fahrenheit. Which cause does the tempo of this decline most support?
Show the answer and rationale
Correct answer · An infection such as a urinary tract infection
The four-day, gradual timeline is the finding that decides this, paired with the temperature of 100.8 degrees Fahrenheit and pulse of 108. Infection triggers systemic inflammatory mediators that slowly impair cerebral metabolism and cause delirium over days, unlike the abrupt neuronal insults of stroke or seizure. In an elderly patient, a urinary tract infection often presents with confusion and poor appetite instead of dysuria or burning, so you screen for infection and get the patient to a facility that can run cultures and labs rather than assuming a primary neurologic event.
Why the others are wrong
An acute ischemic stroke from a blocked cerebral vessel: A stroke comes on suddenly, with vertigo, ataxia, visual loss, or a focal deficit appearing over minutes from an abrupt blockage. This patient has no focal weakness and a four-day gradual decline instead of the sudden onset that defines a stroke.
A structural bleed producing rising intracranial pressure: A structural bleed raising intracranial pressure produces worsening headache, vomiting, and falling responsiveness over hours as the mass effect grows, a much faster and more severe course than this slow four-day confusion with stable vital signs otherwise.
A postictal state following an unwitnessed seizure: A postictal state follows a seizure with confusion that clears within minutes to tens of minutes as the brain recovers from the ictal event; a four-day decline with no witnessed convulsive activity falls far outside that recovery window.
Question 9 of 10
EMS is called for a 74-year-old patient found on the bathroom floor at 09:15 with right-sided weakness and slurred speech, unable to say when the symptoms began. A family member reports last speaking with the patient by phone at 06:30, when the patient sounded normal. What is the patient's last known well time for stroke treatment decisions?
Show the answer and rationale
Correct answer · 06:30, the last time the patient was observed behaving normally
Last known well is defined as the last time someone actually observed the patient behaving normally, not the time the patient was found or the time symptoms were noticed. Here that is 06:30, the last phone call when the patient sounded normal. The gap before the patient was found does not change that definition. This time is one of the two pieces of information, along with the glucose reading, that only the AEMT reliably gathers and that the receiving stroke team depends on for treatment decisions.
Why the others are wrong
09:15, the time the patient was found on the floor with symptoms present: 09:15 is when the patient was found with symptoms already present, not the last time the patient was observed acting normally; using it as the last known well overstates how recently the patient was confirmed normal.
An averaged time halfway between the phone call at 06:30 and the discovery at 09:15: Last known well is an actual observed time, not an estimate or an average between two other times; averaging invents a data point nobody witnessed.
The time EMS personnel first confirmed the deficits during their assessment on scene: The time EMS confirmed the deficits on scene marks when the symptoms were verified, not when the patient was last observed at neurologic baseline, and it plays no role in the last known well determination.
Question 10 of 10
The AEMT is transporting a 61-year-old patient with a witnessed onset of right-sided arm weakness and slurred speech 35 minutes ago. Ten minutes into transport, the patient's speech is clear and arm strength has returned to normal. The patient asks to be taken home instead of to the hospital. What should the AEMT do?
Show the answer and rationale
Correct answer · Continue transport and notify the hospital
A stroke-like deficit that resolves completely within minutes to hours is a transient ischemic attack, and every transient ischemic attack is still an emergency because roughly one-third of these patients go on to have a stroke soon afterward, so transport and hospital notification must continue even though the deficit has resolved.
Why the others are wrong
Return the patient home as requested: Taking the resolved deficit as proof nothing serious happened leads to agreeing to take the patient home, missing that a resolved deficit is still a warning sign of a stroke risk soon after.
Cancel the response and clear the scene: Resolved weakness reads as a false alarm worth clearing the scene over, but a transient ischemic attack still requires hospital evaluation even without an ongoing deficit.
Downgrade to non-emergency transport: A resolved deficit sounds like lower urgency, which is how the transport priority gets downgraded, but the elevated risk of a stroke following a transient ischemic attack keeps this a time-critical transport.
Find out which AEMT topics are costing you points
Ten questions on one topic tell you about that topic. The free diagnostic covers every AEMT topic and breaks your results down by topic, so you know what to drill next. No card, no signup to try it.
Take the free AEMT diagnosticMore free AEMT practice questions by topic
Airway, Respiration & Ventilation
Cardiology & Resuscitation
Trauma
Medical/Obstetrics/Gynecology
- IV Therapy and Fluid Administration
- Medication Administration Routes
- Diabetic Emergencies and Glucometry
- Respiratory Emergencies and Nebulized Medications
- Obstetric and Gynecologic Emergencies
- Neurologic Emergencies: Stroke, Seizure, and Altered Mental Status
- Endocrine Emergencies Beyond Diabetes
- Gastrointestinal, Renal, and Genitourinary Emergencies
- Toxicology and Overdose Management
- Sepsis and Systemic Infection
- Allergic Reaction and Anaphylaxis
- Environmental Emergencies: Heat, Cold, and Submersion
EMS Operations
- AEMT Scope of Practice and Medical Direction
- Specialized Transport Considerations
- Scene Safety, Personal Protection, and Infection Control
- Multiple Casualty Incidents, Triage, and Incident Command
- Documentation, Communication, and Confidentiality
- Ambulance Operations and Equipment Readiness
- Responder Wellness and Resilience