10 free AEMT practice questions: Ventilation and Oxygenation Support
These are real questions from the same bank the app draws from. Each one is written to the NREMT AEMT content specifications and kept inside the AEMT scope of practice. Pick an answer and you get the full rationale, including why the other three options are wrong.
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Question 1 of 10
A supraglottic airway has been placed and confirmed in a 64-year-old patient in cardiac arrest. Compressions have been running at 30 to 2. How do compressions and ventilations run from this point?
Show the answer and rationale
Correct answer · Continuous compressions with one breath every 6 seconds
Placing an advanced airway changes the choreography. Before it, ventilation has to happen in the gaps, so you run 30 compressions to 2 breaths and the compressor stops for the breaths. Once a device is sealing the airway, the breaths no longer need a pause, so compressions run continuously at 100 to 120 per minute and the breaths go in around them, one every 6 seconds for an adult and one every 2 to 3 seconds for an infant or a child. The whole point is that interruptions in compressions cost perfusion, and now you have a way to avoid them. Keep counting the breaths, because it is easy to speed up once nobody is pausing for you.
Why the others are wrong
Continuous compressions with one breath every 3 seconds: One breath every 3 seconds is 20 per minute, and the urge to bag that fast during an arrest is strong. That is the pediatric rate, and in an adult it raises intrathoracic pressure and reduces the blood your compressions are returning to the heart.
Continuous compressions with one breath every 10 seconds: One breath every 10 seconds is 6 per minute, and it is where you land after being warned how much harm fast ventilation does during an arrest. Six breaths a minute does not clear the carbon dioxide your compressions are delivering to the lungs, and this patient has no breathing of their own to make up the difference.
Cycles of 30 compressions to 2 breaths, continued as before: Staying at 30 to 2 is safe in the sense that it is what the crew was already doing well. It also gives up the reason you placed the device, since every pause for breaths is a pause in the perfusion your compressions are generating.
Question 2 of 10
A 55-year-old patient is in respiratory arrest with a pulse and a partner is ventilating with a bag-valve-mask, squeezing about every 2 seconds. The chest rises fully with each breath and there is no gastric distention. Over the next two minutes the blood pressure falls from 118/70 to 84/50 and the pulse climbs from 96 to 124. What best explains the falling blood pressure?
Show the answer and rationale
Correct answer · Higher pressure inside the chest is cutting venous return
Every positive pressure breath you deliver raises the pressure inside the chest, and that pressure has to fall back down between breaths for blood to refill the heart. Squeeze again before it falls and the pressure stacks, so the chest never returns to a level that lets venous blood in. Less blood coming back means less blood going out, and the pressure drops while the heart rate climbs to compensate. This is why ventilating too fast is the most common harmful error in prehospital airway management, and it hits hardest in the patients who can least afford it: the hypotensive patient and the patient in arrest, where the drop in preload works directly against your compressions. An adult in respiratory arrest with a pulse gets one breath every 6 seconds, which is 10 breaths per minute, and a timer or the rate display on your capnography is how you actually hold that.
Why the others are wrong
Each breath is delivering a lower oxygen concentration: Rate and delivered concentration do feel like they should be linked, and a bag without a reservoir really does deliver far less oxygen. The concentration coming out of the bag is set by the flow and the reservoir, not by how often you squeeze, and a change in concentration would not drop a blood pressure in two minutes.
The fast rate is raising the carbon dioxide and dropping the pressure: Watching a carbon dioxide number move with your ventilation rate is exactly the right habit, and carbon dioxide does affect vessel tone. The direction is backwards here: ventilating faster clears more carbon dioxide and drives the number down rather than up, so a level that is falling is not what dropped this pressure.
The shortened breaths are making the patient hypoxic: Fast shallow breathing does leave a patient hypoxic, and that pattern is worth recognizing in a spontaneously breathing patient. The chest is rising fully with each delivered breath, so volume is not the problem here, and hypoxia this early would show as a falling saturation rather than a falling pressure.
Question 3 of 10
A single AEMT is ventilating a 48-year-old patient who is apneic with a bag-valve-mask. The chest barely moves with each squeeze, air leaks audibly with every breath, and the upper abdomen is becoming visibly distended. An oropharyngeal airway is already in place and the reservoir is inflated on 15 liters per minute. What should the AEMT do first?
Show the answer and rationale
Correct answer · Reposition the head and recheck the mask seal
When the chest does not rise, the air you are delivering is going somewhere, and the two places it goes are out around the mask and down into the stomach. Both of those are fixed at the top of the list rather than the bottom. Run the recheck in order: head position first, then the mask seal, then a look for something needing suction, then two providers on the mask, and only then a supraglottic airway if the patient meets the indications. Gastric distention compounds while you work, because a full stomach pushes the diaphragm up, which makes the chest harder to ventilate, which tempts you to squeeze harder, which puts more air in the stomach. One provider trying to seal, hold the jaw, and squeeze at the same time is the setup for exactly this, so getting a second set of hands on the mask is the next thing after the position and the seal.
Why the others are wrong
Squeeze the bag with more force on each breath: More force does move more air when the resistance is in the lungs, and the instinct when nothing is working is to do it harder. Force is what drives air into the stomach in the first place, and with a leaking seal and a partly closed airway the extra pressure takes the easier path every time.
Place a supraglottic airway device now: An advanced airway does solve a mask seal problem, and this patient may well end up with one. It sits at the end of the recheck list rather than the start, because head position and a seal are free, immediate, and fix this far more often than the device does.
Switch to a smaller mask and try the same breaths: Mask fit is a real cause of a leak, and matching the mask to the face is part of doing this well. A smaller mask on an adult face usually leaks more rather than less, and changing equipment before you have corrected the head position skips the step that fixes most of these.
Question 4 of 10
An AEMT is ventilating a 60-year-old patient who has a supraglottic airway in place after a drug overdose, and the patient has a strong pulse at 88 with a blood pressure of 122/74. Over ten minutes the end-tidal carbon dioxide has drifted from 38 mmHg down to 23 mmHg. The waveform is still a clean rectangle that returns to the baseline, chest rise is good, and the partner on the bag is squeezing about every 3 seconds. What should the AEMT do?
Show the answer and rationale
Correct answer · Slow the rate to 10 breaths per minute
Read a capnogram in two parts and it stops being intimidating. The shape tells you about the airway and the lungs, and a clean rectangle that returns to the baseline says both are fine. The height tells you about ventilation and perfusion, and a number that falls while the shape holds means carbon dioxide is leaving faster than the body is making it. Ventilating too fast is the most common cause of that, and a squeeze every 3 seconds is 20 breaths a minute in an adult who should be getting 10. Slow to 10 breaths a minute, which is one every 6 seconds, and the number should climb back toward the normal range of 35 to 45 mmHg. Falling perfusion also drives the number down, which is why you check the rate first: when the rate is correct, the concern becomes how much blood is reaching the lungs.
Why the others are wrong
Give an isotonic crystalloid bolus for poor perfusion: A low carbon dioxide number really can mean less blood is reaching the lungs, and that is the second cause on the list worth knowing. This patient has a strong pulse at 88 and a blood pressure of 122/74, so perfusion is not what changed, and the rate in front of you explains the number without adding fluid.
Remove the device and ventilate with a bag-valve-mask: Pulling a device when the capnogram changes is a habit that saves patients at the confirmation moment. The rule for removing a device belongs to a waveform that never establishes itself or one that disappears, and this tracing is a clean rectangle with good chest rise, which means the device is doing its job.
Increase the oxygen flow running to the bag: More oxygen feels like a safe move whenever a number on the monitor is heading the wrong way. Oxygen flow sets the concentration in the bag and has no effect on the carbon dioxide number, which is driven by how much air you move and how much blood reaches the lungs.
Question 5 of 10
An AEMT is treating a 68-year-old patient with a history of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) who has difficulty breathing. The patient is on oxygen by nonrebreather mask at 15 liters per minute, and the SpO₂ has risen from 82% to 86%. The patient's usual saturation is not known. A crew member states that the oxygen should be turned down to protect the patient's drive to breathe. Which action does the AEMT take?
Show the answer and rationale
Correct answer · Continue oxygen and titrate toward an SpO₂ of 88% to 92%
Hypoxia is the emergency in front of you. An SpO₂ of 86% means this patient is still short of oxygen, and oxygen is never withheld or reduced in a hypoxic patient, whatever the history says. A patient with COPD gets oxygen titrated toward that patient's own baseline saturation, and when the baseline is unknown, 88% to 92% is the working proxy target. Titrating means adjusting the flow to reach that window as the saturation climbs, which is a different action from pulling oxygen back because of what someone on the crew believes about the drive to breathe.
Why the others are wrong
Reduce the oxygen flow to protect the drive to breathe: This is the belief the crew member voiced, and it is the one you do not act on. Oxygen is never withheld or reduced in a hypoxic patient, and at 86% this patient is hypoxic, so cutting the flow treats a theory instead of the number in front of you.
Switch the patient to a nasal cannula at 2 liters per minute: Some students carry a blanket rule that a patient with COPD gets low flow no matter what the saturation reads. Titration follows the saturation rather than the diagnosis, and dropping a hypoxic patient to 2 liters per minute is a reduction dressed up as a device change.
Continue oxygen until the SpO₂ reaches 100%: Running oxygen until the number reads 100% treats more as always better and ignores the target entirely. The window you are titrating toward is 88% to 92% when the baseline is unknown, and driving straight past it means you never titrated at all.
Question 6 of 10
A trauma patient in shock has significant hypoxia and is breathing adequately on their own. The AEMT applies an NRB at 15 L/min. Five minutes later the oxygen saturation remains at 85% with no change in the patient's breathing effort. What is the most appropriate next action?
Show the answer and rationale
Correct answer · Assist ventilations with a BVM, synchronized with the patient's breathing
Persistent hypoxia despite maximal passive oxygen delivery indicates the patient needs ventilatory assistance, not just supplemental oxygen. Assisting ventilations with a BVM synchronized to the patient's own respiratory effort augments tidal volume and oxygenation even in a patient who is still breathing on their own, and is the appropriate escalation once an NRB has failed to correct hypoxia.
Why the others are wrong
Continue the NRB unchanged and reassess again in five minutes: Repeating an intervention that has already failed to correct the hypoxia delays the escalation this patient needs.
Switch to a nasal cannula, which delivers a lower oxygen concentration: A nasal cannula delivers less oxygen than an NRB and would be a downgrade, not an escalation, for persistent hypoxia.
Withhold further intervention, since the patient is still breathing on their own: Adequate spontaneous breathing does not rule out inadequate oxygenation; the persistently low saturation despite maximal passive oxygen is the finding that drives escalation.
Question 7 of 10
An AEMT administers nebulized albuterol to a wheezing asthma patient. After the treatment, the wheezing is louder and more audible than before, and the patient reports easier breathing with an improved capnography waveform. How should the AEMT interpret this change?
Show the answer and rationale
Correct answer · The patient is moving more air than before, consistent with improvement
A louder wheeze after a bronchodilator, paired with the patient's own report of easier breathing and an improving capnography waveform, means more air is now moving through the airways than before: improvement, not deterioration. A silent chest, not a louder wheeze, is the finding that indicates severe obstruction.
Why the others are wrong
The patient is deteriorating and bronchospasm is worsening: Worsening bronchospasm would trend toward reduced air movement and a quieter or absent wheeze, not a louder one paired with subjective and capnographic improvement.
The louder wheeze indicates the treatment failed and a repeat dose is contraindicated: A louder wheeze here reflects improved air movement, so it does not indicate treatment failure.
The change is unrelated to the treatment and should be disregarded: The change directly follows the bronchodilator and correlates with two other objective/subjective improvement markers, so it should not be disregarded.
Question 8 of 10
A 60-year-old patient reports sudden onset of difficulty breathing and sharp pleuritic chest pain that began at rest, two weeks after knee replacement surgery. Lung sounds are clear and equal bilaterally. The pulse oximeter reads 88% despite high-concentration oxygen. Capnography shows a low EtCO₂ with a normal waveform shape in a tachypneic patient. Which condition is most consistent with this presentation?
Show the answer and rationale
Correct answer · Pulmonary embolism
Split sudden difficulty breathing into the causes that change the lung sounds and the causes that do not. This patient's lungs are clear and equal, which throws out most of the airway and fluid causes in one move. Two weeks out from a knee replacement is the risk factor that matters: immobility after lower-extremity surgery is how a deep vein thrombosis forms, and a piece of that clot lodging in the pulmonary circulation blocks blood flow to alveoli that are still being ventilated. That is why the oxygen barely helps: the alveoli are fine, the blood is not reaching them, and it is why capnography shows a low EtCO2 with a normal waveform shape in a patient who is breathing fast: she is ventilating dead space, moving air past capillaries with no perfusion to unload CO2 into. Clear lungs plus hypoxia that ignores high-concentration oxygen plus a low number with a preserved waveform shape is the clinching combination.
Why the others are wrong
Asthma exacerbation: Asthma is the right call when the patient has audible wheezing, a prolonged expiratory phase, and a capnogram with the classic shark-fin upslope from uneven emptying of obstructed airways. Here the lung sounds are clear and equal and the waveform shape is normal, so there is no bronchoconstriction to hear or to see on the capnogram. Asthma also tends to trap CO2 and drive EtCO2 up as the patient tires, rather than down while the waveform stays square.
Bacterial pneumonia: Pneumonia fits the patient who has been building fever, a productive cough, and focal crackles or diminished sounds over a day or two, because it takes time to consolidate a lobe. This onset was sudden and at rest, and the lung sounds are clear and equal bilaterally: an infection dense enough to drag a saturation down to 88% would be audible. Pulmonary embolism is the sudden-onset, clear-lung version of hypoxia, which is what this question describes.
Cardiogenic pulmonary edema: the answer when the left ventricle backs fluid up into the alveoli: crackles from the bases upward, orthopnea, often a heart-failure history. Fluid in the alveoli is loud, and clear, equal breath sounds are the single finding that rules it out here. The pleuritic pain and the postoperative immobility both point back toward a clot rather than a failing pump.
Question 9 of 10
An AEMT applies CPAP to a patient in cardiogenic pulmonary edema. Two minutes later, the patient's blood pressure has dropped from 158/92 mmHg to 96/60 mmHg, and the patient appears more lethargic. What should the AEMT do?
Show the answer and rationale
Correct answer · Reassess perfusion, and remove CPAP if hypotension or mental status decline persist
CPAP increases intrathoracic pressure, which can reduce venous return and cause or unmask hypotension; the blood pressure should be reassessed after starting CPAP, and if hypotension and a declining mental status persist, CPAP should be removed or adjusted rather than continued unchecked.
Why the others are wrong
Increase the CPAP pressure setting to further reduce the work of breathing: Increasing the pressure would worsen the reduction in venous return and further lower the blood pressure.
Continue CPAP unchanged, since a pressure drop is an expected and desirable response: A pressure drop after starting CPAP is a recognized complication to act on, not an expected or desirable therapeutic response.
Immediately give a rapid isotonic fluid bolus without reassessing first: Fluid may eventually be appropriate, but the immediate step is reassessment of the patient's response to CPAP before choosing a next intervention, not an unassessed bolus in a pulmonary edema patient.
Question 10 of 10
A 79-year-old patient has had three days of fever, chills, and a cough productive of thick sputum, with difficulty breathing that has worsened today. Rhonchi are heard in the right lower lung field only, and the remaining lung fields are clear. There is no jugular venous distention and no swelling of the ankles. The T is 102.4°F. The vital signs are BP 118/70, P 110, R 26, and SpO₂ 90% on room air. Which condition is most consistent with this presentation?
Show the answer and rationale
Correct answer · Bacterial pneumonia
Three days of fever and chills with a cough producing thick sputum is an infectious time course, not a cardiac or vascular one. The clinching finding is where the abnormal sound lives: rhonchi in the right lower field only, with every other field clear. Infection consolidates a segment of lung, so it produces localized findings, while pressure-driven and airway-driven causes of difficulty breathing act on both lungs at once. The temperature of 102.4°F is the finding that nothing else on this list explains at all. The hypoxia at 90% comes from blood flowing past alveoli that are filled with inflammatory debris instead of air, so it never picks up oxygen.
Why the others are wrong
Cardiogenic pulmonary edema: right for the patient whose left heart is failing and backing pressure up into the lungs: crackles in both bases, jugular venous distention, pedal edema, often orthopnea and a known heart failure history. This question specifically states there is no jugular venous distention and no ankle swelling, and the abnormal sounds are confined to one side. Both conditions fill alveoli with fluid, but the key's fluid is infectious exudate in one lobe with a fever driving it, and back-pressure edema does not produce a temperature of 102.4°F.
Pulmonary embolism: right for sudden difficulty breathing with clear lungs, often pleuritic chest pain and hypoxia out of proportion to the exam, in a patient with a risk factor such as recent immobility, surgery, or a known clot. Here the onset was gradual over three days and the cough is productive of thick sputum, neither of which a clot causes. Both give tachycardia and hypoxia, but the key accounts for the fever and the focal rhonchi, and a clot accounts for neither.
Asthma exacerbation: right for wheezing heard throughout both lung fields, produced by diffuse bronchoconstriction, usually with a known asthma history and an identifiable trigger. Obstruction is a whole-airway problem, so it cannot confine itself to one lower lobe while the rest of the chest stays clear. That pattern argues directly against it. Asthma also does not cause fever or purulent sputum, which are the two findings the key is built on.
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Airway, Respiration & Ventilation
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